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ServiceNow Certified Technical Architect (CTA)
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Question 1 of 60
1. Question
Which methods can be used to populate the CMDB with data from third-party sources? Choose 2 answers
Correct
The two primary methods for populating the CMDB with data from third-party sources are: C . IntegrationHub ETL: IntegrationHub ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) allows you to connect to various data sources, extract data, transform it to match the CMDB structure, and load it into the CMDB. This is a very flexible and powerful tool for integrating with a wide range of third-party systems. D . Service Graph Connectors: Service Graph Connectors are pre-built integrations that connect ServiceNow to specific third-party applications and services. They provide a streamlined way to import data from these sources into the CMDB.
Incorrect
The two primary methods for populating the CMDB with data from third-party sources are: C . IntegrationHub ETL: IntegrationHub ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) allows you to connect to various data sources, extract data, transform it to match the CMDB structure, and load it into the CMDB. This is a very flexible and powerful tool for integrating with a wide range of third-party systems. D . Service Graph Connectors: Service Graph Connectors are pre-built integrations that connect ServiceNow to specific third-party applications and services. They provide a streamlined way to import data from these sources into the CMDB.
Unattempted
The two primary methods for populating the CMDB with data from third-party sources are: C . IntegrationHub ETL: IntegrationHub ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) allows you to connect to various data sources, extract data, transform it to match the CMDB structure, and load it into the CMDB. This is a very flexible and powerful tool for integrating with a wide range of third-party systems. D . Service Graph Connectors: Service Graph Connectors are pre-built integrations that connect ServiceNow to specific third-party applications and services. They provide a streamlined way to import data from these sources into the CMDB.
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
As a Certified Technical Architect, you advise customers on the decision-making framework for ServiceNow. Which of the following statements accurately describe the three types of governance boards recommended by ServiceNow and their interrelationships? (Select 4)
Correct
ServiceNow recommends three boards: Executive Steering Board (strategy, budget), Demand Board (prioritized backlog, sequenced implementations, senior IT/business leaders), and Technical Governance Board (technical leaders, architects). These levels are interrelated and inform each other, and decisions should be made by separate, specialized groups to prevent silos. The Portfolio Governance Board (Demand Board) is at the portfolio level, not for specific technical designs.
Incorrect
ServiceNow recommends three boards: Executive Steering Board (strategy, budget), Demand Board (prioritized backlog, sequenced implementations, senior IT/business leaders), and Technical Governance Board (technical leaders, architects). These levels are interrelated and inform each other, and decisions should be made by separate, specialized groups to prevent silos. The Portfolio Governance Board (Demand Board) is at the portfolio level, not for specific technical designs.
Unattempted
ServiceNow recommends three boards: Executive Steering Board (strategy, budget), Demand Board (prioritized backlog, sequenced implementations, senior IT/business leaders), and Technical Governance Board (technical leaders, architects). These levels are interrelated and inform each other, and decisions should be made by separate, specialized groups to prevent silos. The Portfolio Governance Board (Demand Board) is at the portfolio level, not for specific technical designs.
Question 3 of 60
3. Question
During a ServiceNow implementation, a CTA guides the customer through various phases, including the ‘Deliver‘ phase of the Now Create methodology. Which of the following activities are characteristic of or occur during the ‘Deliver‘ phase? (Select 4)
Correct
The ‘Deliver‘ phase includes system testing, user acceptance testing, go-live planning, operational readiness, training, and go-live. Process workshops and project kick-off meetings are part of the ‘Plan‘ and ‘Initiate‘ phases, respectively.
Incorrect
The ‘Deliver‘ phase includes system testing, user acceptance testing, go-live planning, operational readiness, training, and go-live. Process workshops and project kick-off meetings are part of the ‘Plan‘ and ‘Initiate‘ phases, respectively.
Unattempted
The ‘Deliver‘ phase includes system testing, user acceptance testing, go-live planning, operational readiness, training, and go-live. Process workshops and project kick-off meetings are part of the ‘Plan‘ and ‘Initiate‘ phases, respectively.
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
A CTA is advising a customer on ensuring data quality for their CMDB. Which of the following characteristics are measures of data quality provided by the CMDB Health Dashboard? (Select 3)
Correct
The CMDB health dashboard provides an objective measurement of data quality, with an overall weighted score across three dimensions. ‘Correctness‘ is a measure of data quality (accuracy/validity). ‘Completeness‘ is whether required data is present. ‘Compliance‘ measures actual values against expected values. The dashboard provides measurement, not direct remediation like the duplicate remediator.
Incorrect
The CMDB health dashboard provides an objective measurement of data quality, with an overall weighted score across three dimensions. ‘Correctness‘ is a measure of data quality (accuracy/validity). ‘Completeness‘ is whether required data is present. ‘Compliance‘ measures actual values against expected values. The dashboard provides measurement, not direct remediation like the duplicate remediator.
Unattempted
The CMDB health dashboard provides an objective measurement of data quality, with an overall weighted score across three dimensions. ‘Correctness‘ is a measure of data quality (accuracy/validity). ‘Completeness‘ is whether required data is present. ‘Compliance‘ measures actual values against expected values. The dashboard provides measurement, not direct remediation like the duplicate remediator.
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
ServiceNow provides a tiered security architecture for its platform. Which of the following accurately describe the layers of this architecture and their characteristics? (Select 4)
Correct
The first layer is ‘Internet Services Layer‘ (network layer), with 2N redundancy. The ‘Application Layer‘ hosts clustered application nodes and is *not* directly accessible from the internet, only through the first layer. The ‘Database Layer‘ is a discrete, non-internet routable segment, with each instance having a unique, segregated database. All requests go through the Internet Services Layer. The ‘Physical Layer‘ is a broader concept for data center security, not one of the *three* platform security architecture layers.
Incorrect
The first layer is ‘Internet Services Layer‘ (network layer), with 2N redundancy. The ‘Application Layer‘ hosts clustered application nodes and is *not* directly accessible from the internet, only through the first layer. The ‘Database Layer‘ is a discrete, non-internet routable segment, with each instance having a unique, segregated database. All requests go through the Internet Services Layer. The ‘Physical Layer‘ is a broader concept for data center security, not one of the *three* platform security architecture layers.
Unattempted
The first layer is ‘Internet Services Layer‘ (network layer), with 2N redundancy. The ‘Application Layer‘ hosts clustered application nodes and is *not* directly accessible from the internet, only through the first layer. The ‘Database Layer‘ is a discrete, non-internet routable segment, with each instance having a unique, segregated database. All requests go through the Internet Services Layer. The ‘Physical Layer‘ is a broader concept for data center security, not one of the *three* platform security architecture layers.
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
When identifying a customer‘s current architecture, a CTA maps out current capabilities using a ServiceNow capabilities map. Which of the following steps are involved in this process to define a future architecture? (Select 4)
Correct
To define a future architecture, a CTA should map current capabilities using a ServiceNow capabilities map, identify ‘hot spots‘ (areas for improvement), and see what is actually used/unused to help work out the ‘to-be‘ architecture. An instance score is a separate assessment. Presenting findings with a heatmap is a later step in documenting results.
Incorrect
To define a future architecture, a CTA should map current capabilities using a ServiceNow capabilities map, identify ‘hot spots‘ (areas for improvement), and see what is actually used/unused to help work out the ‘to-be‘ architecture. An instance score is a separate assessment. Presenting findings with a heatmap is a later step in documenting results.
Unattempted
To define a future architecture, a CTA should map current capabilities using a ServiceNow capabilities map, identify ‘hot spots‘ (areas for improvement), and see what is actually used/unused to help work out the ‘to-be‘ architecture. An instance score is a separate assessment. Presenting findings with a heatmap is a later step in documenting results.
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
A CTA is discussing the overall architecture picture for a ServiceNow implementation, emphasizing a single production instance hosting all applications. Which of the following statements accurately describe the desired end goal of this process and the components called out in this overall architecture view? (Select 3)
Correct
The desired end goal is an automated, standardized, integrated, traceable, intuitive, and simple platform, aiming for out-of-the-box functionality. The overall architecture picture should call out both internal and external products with which ServiceNow interfaces. It should *include* external data lakes and portals. Highly customized solutions for edge cases are generally discouraged.
Incorrect
The desired end goal is an automated, standardized, integrated, traceable, intuitive, and simple platform, aiming for out-of-the-box functionality. The overall architecture picture should call out both internal and external products with which ServiceNow interfaces. It should *include* external data lakes and portals. Highly customized solutions for edge cases are generally discouraged.
Unattempted
The desired end goal is an automated, standardized, integrated, traceable, intuitive, and simple platform, aiming for out-of-the-box functionality. The overall architecture picture should call out both internal and external products with which ServiceNow interfaces. It should *include* external data lakes and portals. Highly customized solutions for edge cases are generally discouraged.
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
Foundation data in ServiceNow supports various capabilities and operational models. Which of the following factors influence the type of services a customer will consume or who will provide support for that service? (Select 4)
Correct
Factors determining consumed services include ‘Who‘ (user‘s role), ‘What‘ (service from catalog hierarchy), and ‘Where‘ (customer‘s location). The operational model (department, geography, outsourced) also dictates how support is provided and the escalation path. SLAs are defined at the offering level, but not a factor *determining* consumption directly. Historical incident data is used for analysis/improvement, not determining service consumption.
Incorrect
Factors determining consumed services include ‘Who‘ (user‘s role), ‘What‘ (service from catalog hierarchy), and ‘Where‘ (customer‘s location). The operational model (department, geography, outsourced) also dictates how support is provided and the escalation path. SLAs are defined at the offering level, but not a factor *determining* consumption directly. Historical incident data is used for analysis/improvement, not determining service consumption.
Unattempted
Factors determining consumed services include ‘Who‘ (user‘s role), ‘What‘ (service from catalog hierarchy), and ‘Where‘ (customer‘s location). The operational model (department, geography, outsourced) also dictates how support is provided and the escalation path. SLAs are defined at the offering level, but not a factor *determining* consumption directly. Historical incident data is used for analysis/improvement, not determining service consumption.
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is a leading practice for managing system access in ServiceNow. Which of the following statements accurately describe the principles and structure of RBAC within the platform? (Select 4)
Correct
RBAC restricts access based on roles assigned to users, typically through groups, not individual network access. ‘Persona‘ groups represent functions. System roles should *not* be assigned directly to individuals. Roles added to a Persona flow down to inheriting groups. RBAC is preferred for auditing. Breaking the parent relationship is a method for managing external RBAC.
Incorrect
RBAC restricts access based on roles assigned to users, typically through groups, not individual network access. ‘Persona‘ groups represent functions. System roles should *not* be assigned directly to individuals. Roles added to a Persona flow down to inheriting groups. RBAC is preferred for auditing. Breaking the parent relationship is a method for managing external RBAC.
Unattempted
RBAC restricts access based on roles assigned to users, typically through groups, not individual network access. ‘Persona‘ groups represent functions. System roles should *not* be assigned directly to individuals. Roles added to a Persona flow down to inheriting groups. RBAC is preferred for auditing. Breaking the parent relationship is a method for managing external RBAC.
Question 10 of 60
10. Question
A CTA is advising on their customer‘s release strategy, specifically concerning code migration between environments. Which of the following statements accurately describe the supported out-of-the-box code migration options in ServiceNow? (Select 5)
Correct
Out-of-the-box options include Application repositories (good for company instances, restricting access, but require all changes complete before publishing, manual dependency tracking), Source control integrations (for multiple versions, Git archiving, automated subsequent deployments), and Update sets (grouping configuration changes as XML files). Team development is *superseded* by Source Control, not the current recommended approach.
Incorrect
Out-of-the-box options include Application repositories (good for company instances, restricting access, but require all changes complete before publishing, manual dependency tracking), Source control integrations (for multiple versions, Git archiving, automated subsequent deployments), and Update sets (grouping configuration changes as XML files). Team development is *superseded* by Source Control, not the current recommended approach.
Unattempted
Out-of-the-box options include Application repositories (good for company instances, restricting access, but require all changes complete before publishing, manual dependency tracking), Source control integrations (for multiple versions, Git archiving, automated subsequent deployments), and Update sets (grouping configuration changes as XML files). Team development is *superseded* by Source Control, not the current recommended approach.
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
What is the main focus in the Foundation stage of implementing the CSDM framework?
Correct
The Foundation stage of the CSDM framework focuses primarily on establishing the core structure of your CMDB. This involves: Defining the scope: Determine which services and applications will be managed within the CMDB. Building the foundation data model: Implement the core CSDM classes and their relationships. This includes key classes like Application Service, Business Application, and Technical Service Offering. Populating foundational data: Start populating the CMDB with basic information about your core services, applications, and the technologies that support them.
Incorrect
The Foundation stage of the CSDM framework focuses primarily on establishing the core structure of your CMDB. This involves: Defining the scope: Determine which services and applications will be managed within the CMDB. Building the foundation data model: Implement the core CSDM classes and their relationships. This includes key classes like Application Service, Business Application, and Technical Service Offering. Populating foundational data: Start populating the CMDB with basic information about your core services, applications, and the technologies that support them.
Unattempted
The Foundation stage of the CSDM framework focuses primarily on establishing the core structure of your CMDB. This involves: Defining the scope: Determine which services and applications will be managed within the CMDB. Building the foundation data model: Implement the core CSDM classes and their relationships. This includes key classes like Application Service, Business Application, and Technical Service Offering. Populating foundational data: Start populating the CMDB with basic information about your core services, applications, and the technologies that support them.
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
How are new classes of Configuration Items (CIs) and relationships created in the ServiceNow CMDB?
Correct
The most common and recommended way to create new CI classes in ServiceNow is by extending existing classes. This leverages the existing data structure and relationships within the CMDB. Here‘s why this approach is preferred: Inheritance: Extending a class allows the new class to inherit attributes and relationships from the parent class, ensuring consistency and reducing redundancy. Data Model Integrity: It helps maintain the integrity of the CMDB data model by building upon the established CSDM framework. Customization: Extending classes provides flexibility to add specific attributes and relationships that are unique to the new CI class.
Incorrect
The most common and recommended way to create new CI classes in ServiceNow is by extending existing classes. This leverages the existing data structure and relationships within the CMDB. Here‘s why this approach is preferred: Inheritance: Extending a class allows the new class to inherit attributes and relationships from the parent class, ensuring consistency and reducing redundancy. Data Model Integrity: It helps maintain the integrity of the CMDB data model by building upon the established CSDM framework. Customization: Extending classes provides flexibility to add specific attributes and relationships that are unique to the new CI class.
Unattempted
The most common and recommended way to create new CI classes in ServiceNow is by extending existing classes. This leverages the existing data structure and relationships within the CMDB. Here‘s why this approach is preferred: Inheritance: Extending a class allows the new class to inherit attributes and relationships from the parent class, ensuring consistency and reducing redundancy. Data Model Integrity: It helps maintain the integrity of the CMDB data model by building upon the established CSDM framework. Customization: Extending classes provides flexibility to add specific attributes and relationships that are unique to the new CI class.
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
What benefits does the Common Service Data Model (CSDM) provide to organizations using ServiceNow products?
Correct
The CSDM offers several key benefits, and the best fit among the options is D. Customization, consistent analysis, and data governance. Here‘s why: Customization: CSDM provides a framework, but it allows for customization to fit specific organizational needs. You can extend the data model with new CI classes and attributes while maintaining a consistent structure. Consistent Analysis: CSDM enables consistent reporting and analysis across the organization by providing a standardized structure for CMDB data. This makes it easier to gain insights into services, applications, and their supporting infrastructure. Data Governance: CSDM promotes data governance by establishing clear definitions, relationships, and ownership for data within the CMDB. This helps ensure data quality and consistency.
Incorrect
The CSDM offers several key benefits, and the best fit among the options is D. Customization, consistent analysis, and data governance. Here‘s why: Customization: CSDM provides a framework, but it allows for customization to fit specific organizational needs. You can extend the data model with new CI classes and attributes while maintaining a consistent structure. Consistent Analysis: CSDM enables consistent reporting and analysis across the organization by providing a standardized structure for CMDB data. This makes it easier to gain insights into services, applications, and their supporting infrastructure. Data Governance: CSDM promotes data governance by establishing clear definitions, relationships, and ownership for data within the CMDB. This helps ensure data quality and consistency.
Unattempted
The CSDM offers several key benefits, and the best fit among the options is D. Customization, consistent analysis, and data governance. Here‘s why: Customization: CSDM provides a framework, but it allows for customization to fit specific organizational needs. You can extend the data model with new CI classes and attributes while maintaining a consistent structure. Consistent Analysis: CSDM enables consistent reporting and analysis across the organization by providing a standardized structure for CMDB data. This makes it easier to gain insights into services, applications, and their supporting infrastructure. Data Governance: CSDM promotes data governance by establishing clear definitions, relationships, and ownership for data within the CMDB. This helps ensure data quality and consistency.
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
A system administrator, Priya, notices that certain Configuration Items (CIs) in the CMDB have not populated the required and recommended fields, impacting data integrity. Which KPI should Priya review to diagnose this issue?
Correct
The KPI that directly relates to the issue of missing required and recommended fields is Completeness. Completeness: This KPI measures the extent to which CI records have all the necessary information filled in. Missing required or recommended fields indicate a lack of completeness in the CMDB data.
Incorrect
The KPI that directly relates to the issue of missing required and recommended fields is Completeness. Completeness: This KPI measures the extent to which CI records have all the necessary information filled in. Missing required or recommended fields indicate a lack of completeness in the CMDB data.
Unattempted
The KPI that directly relates to the issue of missing required and recommended fields is Completeness. Completeness: This KPI measures the extent to which CI records have all the necessary information filled in. Missing required or recommended fields indicate a lack of completeness in the CMDB data.
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
What action does the Identification and Reconciliation module perform to reduce duplicates in the CMDB?
Correct
The Identification and Reconciliation (I&R) module uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs. These rules help the system determine if a CI discovered or imported from a data source already exists in the CMDB or if it‘s a new CI. Here‘s how it works: Identification Rules: These rules define criteria for matching CIs based on their attributes (e.g., serial number, MAC address, hostname). Matching and Reconciliation: When new data comes in, the I&R engine applies the rules to find potential matches. If a match is found, the system can either update the existing CI with new information or flag it as a potential duplicate for review.
Incorrect
The Identification and Reconciliation (I&R) module uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs. These rules help the system determine if a CI discovered or imported from a data source already exists in the CMDB or if it‘s a new CI. Here‘s how it works: Identification Rules: These rules define criteria for matching CIs based on their attributes (e.g., serial number, MAC address, hostname). Matching and Reconciliation: When new data comes in, the I&R engine applies the rules to find potential matches. If a match is found, the system can either update the existing CI with new information or flag it as a potential duplicate for review.
Unattempted
The Identification and Reconciliation (I&R) module uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs. These rules help the system determine if a CI discovered or imported from a data source already exists in the CMDB or if it‘s a new CI. Here‘s how it works: Identification Rules: These rules define criteria for matching CIs based on their attributes (e.g., serial number, MAC address, hostname). Matching and Reconciliation: When new data comes in, the I&R engine applies the rules to find potential matches. If a match is found, the system can either update the existing CI with new information or flag it as a potential duplicate for review.
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
When performing final checks and validations for a ServiceNow go-live, a CTA implements various checklists. Which of the following activities are typically part of ‘Health checks‘ to be performed in the production environment on the day of implementation? (Select 3)
Correct
Health checks performed on implementation day include confirming Discovery runs, checking production instances for errors/performance, and verifying MID Server status. Decommissioning legacy systems, reviewing processes, and approving go-live documents are prerequisite or planning activities, not health checks performed on the day.
Incorrect
Health checks performed on implementation day include confirming Discovery runs, checking production instances for errors/performance, and verifying MID Server status. Decommissioning legacy systems, reviewing processes, and approving go-live documents are prerequisite or planning activities, not health checks performed on the day.
Unattempted
Health checks performed on implementation day include confirming Discovery runs, checking production instances for errors/performance, and verifying MID Server status. Decommissioning legacy systems, reviewing processes, and approving go-live documents are prerequisite or planning activities, not health checks performed on the day.
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
What are the primary capabilities of Service Mapping in ServiceNow? Choose 2 answers
Correct
Service Mapping in ServiceNow has two primary capabilities: A . Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB): Service Mapping helps shift the focus of the CMDB from individual components to a service-centric view. It achieves this by mapping the relationships between infrastructure components and the services they support, providing a clear understanding of how IT supports business services. E . Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services: This is the core function of Service Mapping. It automatically discovers and maps the dependencies between applications, infrastructure (servers, databases, network devices), and the services they deliver. This creates a visual representation of the IT landscape and how it supports business services.
Incorrect
Service Mapping in ServiceNow has two primary capabilities: A . Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB): Service Mapping helps shift the focus of the CMDB from individual components to a service-centric view. It achieves this by mapping the relationships between infrastructure components and the services they support, providing a clear understanding of how IT supports business services. E . Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services: This is the core function of Service Mapping. It automatically discovers and maps the dependencies between applications, infrastructure (servers, databases, network devices), and the services they deliver. This creates a visual representation of the IT landscape and how it supports business services.
Unattempted
Service Mapping in ServiceNow has two primary capabilities: A . Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB): Service Mapping helps shift the focus of the CMDB from individual components to a service-centric view. It achieves this by mapping the relationships between infrastructure components and the services they support, providing a clear understanding of how IT supports business services. E . Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services: This is the core function of Service Mapping. It automatically discovers and maps the dependencies between applications, infrastructure (servers, databases, network devices), and the services they deliver. This creates a visual representation of the IT landscape and how it supports business services.
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
What does a ServiceNow governance framework typically define? Choose 3 answers
Correct
A ServiceNow governance framework provides structure and guidance for managing the platform and its applications. It typically defines: A . How decisions are made: The framework outlines the processes for making decisions related to the platform, such as changes to configurations, new application development, and platform upgrades. This might include approval processes, escalation procedures, and communication protocols. B . What decisions need to be made: The framework identifies the types of decisions that require governance oversight. This might include decisions about platform strategy, architecture, security, data management, and integration with other systems. C . Who is involved in decision-making: The framework establishes roles and responsibilities for different stakeholders in the governance process. This might include defining a governance board, steering committees, and individual roles with specific decision-making authority.
Incorrect
A ServiceNow governance framework provides structure and guidance for managing the platform and its applications. It typically defines: A . How decisions are made: The framework outlines the processes for making decisions related to the platform, such as changes to configurations, new application development, and platform upgrades. This might include approval processes, escalation procedures, and communication protocols. B . What decisions need to be made: The framework identifies the types of decisions that require governance oversight. This might include decisions about platform strategy, architecture, security, data management, and integration with other systems. C . Who is involved in decision-making: The framework establishes roles and responsibilities for different stakeholders in the governance process. This might include defining a governance board, steering committees, and individual roles with specific decision-making authority.
Unattempted
A ServiceNow governance framework provides structure and guidance for managing the platform and its applications. It typically defines: A . How decisions are made: The framework outlines the processes for making decisions related to the platform, such as changes to configurations, new application development, and platform upgrades. This might include approval processes, escalation procedures, and communication protocols. B . What decisions need to be made: The framework identifies the types of decisions that require governance oversight. This might include decisions about platform strategy, architecture, security, data management, and integration with other systems. C . Who is involved in decision-making: The framework establishes roles and responsibilities for different stakeholders in the governance process. This might include defining a governance board, steering committees, and individual roles with specific decision-making authority.
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
A new project request requires quick implementation but involves portfolio realignment. As an IT leader, who should you consult to prioritize this demand?
Correct
In this scenario, the Executive Steering Board is the most appropriate group to consult. Here‘s why: Portfolio Realignment: This implies significant changes to the overall IT portfolio, which falls under the purview of the Executive Steering Board. They have the authority to make strategic decisions about the IT portfolio and prioritize initiatives based on business goals and overall impact.
Incorrect
In this scenario, the Executive Steering Board is the most appropriate group to consult. Here‘s why: Portfolio Realignment: This implies significant changes to the overall IT portfolio, which falls under the purview of the Executive Steering Board. They have the authority to make strategic decisions about the IT portfolio and prioritize initiatives based on business goals and overall impact.
Unattempted
In this scenario, the Executive Steering Board is the most appropriate group to consult. Here‘s why: Portfolio Realignment: This implies significant changes to the overall IT portfolio, which falls under the purview of the Executive Steering Board. They have the authority to make strategic decisions about the IT portfolio and prioritize initiatives based on business goals and overall impact.
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
Under technical governance policies, what does environmental management in ServiceNow primarily define?
Correct
In the context of ServiceNow technical governance, environmental management primarily focuses on defining the instance structure. This includes: Instance Segmentation: Determining how many instances are needed (e.g., separate instances for development, test, and production) and how they relate to each other. Instance Upgrades: Establishing policies and procedures for managing instance upgrades, including scheduling, testing, and communication. Instance Maintenance: Defining guidelines for ongoing maintenance activities, such as patching, backups, and performance monitoring.
Incorrect
In the context of ServiceNow technical governance, environmental management primarily focuses on defining the instance structure. This includes: Instance Segmentation: Determining how many instances are needed (e.g., separate instances for development, test, and production) and how they relate to each other. Instance Upgrades: Establishing policies and procedures for managing instance upgrades, including scheduling, testing, and communication. Instance Maintenance: Defining guidelines for ongoing maintenance activities, such as patching, backups, and performance monitoring.
Unattempted
In the context of ServiceNow technical governance, environmental management primarily focuses on defining the instance structure. This includes: Instance Segmentation: Determining how many instances are needed (e.g., separate instances for development, test, and production) and how they relate to each other. Instance Upgrades: Establishing policies and procedures for managing instance upgrades, including scheduling, testing, and communication. Instance Maintenance: Defining guidelines for ongoing maintenance activities, such as patching, backups, and performance monitoring.
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
What benefits does effective testing provide? Choose 3 answers
Correct
Effective testing provides several key benefits: B . Conforms to specifications as defined in stories: Testing ensures that the developed software meets the requirements and acceptance criteria outlined in user stories or other requirement documents. D . Validates new functionality without introducing regressions: Testing verifies that new features or changes work as expected and do not negatively impact existing functionality (regressions). E . Identifies defects early in the development process: The earlier defects are found, the cheaper and easier they are to fix. Testing helps identify issues early in the development lifecycle.
Incorrect
Effective testing provides several key benefits: B . Conforms to specifications as defined in stories: Testing ensures that the developed software meets the requirements and acceptance criteria outlined in user stories or other requirement documents. D . Validates new functionality without introducing regressions: Testing verifies that new features or changes work as expected and do not negatively impact existing functionality (regressions). E . Identifies defects early in the development process: The earlier defects are found, the cheaper and easier they are to fix. Testing helps identify issues early in the development lifecycle.
Unattempted
Effective testing provides several key benefits: B . Conforms to specifications as defined in stories: Testing ensures that the developed software meets the requirements and acceptance criteria outlined in user stories or other requirement documents. D . Validates new functionality without introducing regressions: Testing verifies that new features or changes work as expected and do not negatively impact existing functionality (regressions). E . Identifies defects early in the development process: The earlier defects are found, the cheaper and easier they are to fix. Testing helps identify issues early in the development lifecycle.
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
What aspect of software is evaluated during non-functional testing?
Correct
Non-functional testing focuses on how a system operates and meets user expectations in terms of qualities like: Performance: Response times, load handling, scalability Usability: Ease of use, user interface design Security: Protection against unauthorized access and data breaches Reliability: System stability and availability Maintainability: Ease of making changes and updates.
Incorrect
Non-functional testing focuses on how a system operates and meets user expectations in terms of qualities like: Performance: Response times, load handling, scalability Usability: Ease of use, user interface design Security: Protection against unauthorized access and data breaches Reliability: System stability and availability Maintainability: Ease of making changes and updates.
Unattempted
Non-functional testing focuses on how a system operates and meets user expectations in terms of qualities like: Performance: Response times, load handling, scalability Usability: Ease of use, user interface design Security: Protection against unauthorized access and data breaches Reliability: System stability and availability Maintainability: Ease of making changes and updates.
Question 23 of 60
23. Question
What type of testing requires human observation to measure how user-friendly, efficient, or convenient the software or product is for end-users?
Correct
Usability testing is the type of testing that relies on human observation to assess the user-friendliness of a software product. In usability testing: Real users interact with the software or product in a realistic setting. Observers watch and record user behavior, noting any difficulties, frustrations, or areas of confusion. Feedback is gathered from users to understand their experiences and identify areas for improvement.
Incorrect
Usability testing is the type of testing that relies on human observation to assess the user-friendliness of a software product. In usability testing: Real users interact with the software or product in a realistic setting. Observers watch and record user behavior, noting any difficulties, frustrations, or areas of confusion. Feedback is gathered from users to understand their experiences and identify areas for improvement.
Unattempted
Usability testing is the type of testing that relies on human observation to assess the user-friendliness of a software product. In usability testing: Real users interact with the software or product in a realistic setting. Observers watch and record user behavior, noting any difficulties, frustrations, or areas of confusion. Feedback is gathered from users to understand their experiences and identify areas for improvement.
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
Which type of testing is best suited for scenarios requiring repeated execution of tasks over a long period of time?
Correct
Automated testing is ideal for scenarios involving repetitive tasks over extended periods. Here‘s why: Efficiency: Automated tests can execute tasks much faster than humans. Consistency: Automated tests perform the same steps precisely every time, eliminating human error. Endurance: Automated tests can run continuously for long durations without fatigue. Regression Testing: Automated tests are excellent for regression testing, repeatedly checking that existing functionality hasn‘t been broken by new changes.
Incorrect
Automated testing is ideal for scenarios involving repetitive tasks over extended periods. Here‘s why: Efficiency: Automated tests can execute tasks much faster than humans. Consistency: Automated tests perform the same steps precisely every time, eliminating human error. Endurance: Automated tests can run continuously for long durations without fatigue. Regression Testing: Automated tests are excellent for regression testing, repeatedly checking that existing functionality hasn‘t been broken by new changes.
Unattempted
Automated testing is ideal for scenarios involving repetitive tasks over extended periods. Here‘s why: Efficiency: Automated tests can execute tasks much faster than humans. Consistency: Automated tests perform the same steps precisely every time, eliminating human error. Endurance: Automated tests can run continuously for long durations without fatigue. Regression Testing: Automated tests are excellent for regression testing, repeatedly checking that existing functionality hasn‘t been broken by new changes.
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
A company is preparing for a ServiceNow instance upgrade. Which tool shortens the time to validate critical processes post-upgrade?
Correct
The Automated Testing Framework (ATF) is the best tool for quickly validating critical processes after a ServiceNow instance upgrade. Here‘s why: Automated Execution: ATF allows you to create automated tests that can be run quickly and repeatedly after the upgrade. This significantly reduces the time required for testing compared to manual methods. Comprehensive Coverage: You can create automated tests for various processes, workflows, UI actions, and business rules, ensuring comprehensive validation of critical functionality. Regression Testing: ATF is particularly valuable for regression testing, ensuring that the upgrade hasn‘t introduced any unexpected issues or broken existing functionality.
Incorrect
The Automated Testing Framework (ATF) is the best tool for quickly validating critical processes after a ServiceNow instance upgrade. Here‘s why: Automated Execution: ATF allows you to create automated tests that can be run quickly and repeatedly after the upgrade. This significantly reduces the time required for testing compared to manual methods. Comprehensive Coverage: You can create automated tests for various processes, workflows, UI actions, and business rules, ensuring comprehensive validation of critical functionality. Regression Testing: ATF is particularly valuable for regression testing, ensuring that the upgrade hasn‘t introduced any unexpected issues or broken existing functionality.
Unattempted
The Automated Testing Framework (ATF) is the best tool for quickly validating critical processes after a ServiceNow instance upgrade. Here‘s why: Automated Execution: ATF allows you to create automated tests that can be run quickly and repeatedly after the upgrade. This significantly reduces the time required for testing compared to manual methods. Comprehensive Coverage: You can create automated tests for various processes, workflows, UI actions, and business rules, ensuring comprehensive validation of critical functionality. Regression Testing: ATF is particularly valuable for regression testing, ensuring that the upgrade hasn‘t introduced any unexpected issues or broken existing functionality.
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
What is the primary purpose of the Test Management 2.0 application in ServiceNow?
Correct
The primary purpose of Test Management 2.0 is to streamline manual testing processes. It provides a structured framework for: Planning and Designing Tests: Creating test plans, test cases, and test suites. Executing Tests: Tracking test execution and recording results. Managing Defects: Logging and tracking defects found during testing. Reporting: Generating reports on test coverage, progress, and results.
Incorrect
The primary purpose of Test Management 2.0 is to streamline manual testing processes. It provides a structured framework for: Planning and Designing Tests: Creating test plans, test cases, and test suites. Executing Tests: Tracking test execution and recording results. Managing Defects: Logging and tracking defects found during testing. Reporting: Generating reports on test coverage, progress, and results.
Unattempted
The primary purpose of Test Management 2.0 is to streamline manual testing processes. It provides a structured framework for: Planning and Designing Tests: Creating test plans, test cases, and test suites. Executing Tests: Tracking test execution and recording results. Managing Defects: Logging and tracking defects found during testing. Reporting: Generating reports on test coverage, progress, and results.
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
What type of testing is characterized by an unplanned approach where the tester‘s understanding and insight are the most important factors?
Correct
Ad hoc testing is characterized by an unplanned, informal approach where testers rely on their knowledge and intuition to explore the software and identify potential issues. Key characteristics of ad hoc testing: No predefined test cases: Testers don‘t follow specific scripts or steps. Exploratory in nature: Testers freely explore the software, trying different actions and inputs. Relies on tester experience: The effectiveness of ad hoc testing depends on the tester‘s understanding of the software and their ability to identify potential problem areas.
Incorrect
Ad hoc testing is characterized by an unplanned, informal approach where testers rely on their knowledge and intuition to explore the software and identify potential issues. Key characteristics of ad hoc testing: No predefined test cases: Testers don‘t follow specific scripts or steps. Exploratory in nature: Testers freely explore the software, trying different actions and inputs. Relies on tester experience: The effectiveness of ad hoc testing depends on the tester‘s understanding of the software and their ability to identify potential problem areas.
Unattempted
Ad hoc testing is characterized by an unplanned, informal approach where testers rely on their knowledge and intuition to explore the software and identify potential issues. Key characteristics of ad hoc testing: No predefined test cases: Testers don‘t follow specific scripts or steps. Exploratory in nature: Testers freely explore the software, trying different actions and inputs. Relies on tester experience: The effectiveness of ad hoc testing depends on the tester‘s understanding of the software and their ability to identify potential problem areas.
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
What is the primary purpose of having a go-live plan?
Correct
The primary purpose of a go-live plan is to facilitate a seamless and smooth transition process when deploying new software or changes to a production environment. It acts as a roadmap for the go-live event, outlining the steps involved, roles and responsibilities, and timelines. A go-live plan typically includes: Pre-Go-Live Activities: Data migration, system checks, communication to users. Go-Live Activities: Deployment steps, rollback procedures, monitoring. Post-Go-Live Activities: Support procedures, user training, issue resolution.
Incorrect
The primary purpose of a go-live plan is to facilitate a seamless and smooth transition process when deploying new software or changes to a production environment. It acts as a roadmap for the go-live event, outlining the steps involved, roles and responsibilities, and timelines. A go-live plan typically includes: Pre-Go-Live Activities: Data migration, system checks, communication to users. Go-Live Activities: Deployment steps, rollback procedures, monitoring. Post-Go-Live Activities: Support procedures, user training, issue resolution.
Unattempted
The primary purpose of a go-live plan is to facilitate a seamless and smooth transition process when deploying new software or changes to a production environment. It acts as a roadmap for the go-live event, outlining the steps involved, roles and responsibilities, and timelines. A go-live plan typically includes: Pre-Go-Live Activities: Data migration, system checks, communication to users. Go-Live Activities: Deployment steps, rollback procedures, monitoring. Post-Go-Live Activities: Support procedures, user training, issue resolution.
Question 29 of 60
29. Question
Which strategy is recommended for effective communication during the go-live phase?
Correct
Effective communication during a go-live is crucial for keeping stakeholders informed and managing expectations. The best strategy is to describe released functionality and provide knowledge base articles. Here‘s why: Clarity and Transparency: Clearly communicate what new features or changes are being released, so users understand what to expect. Knowledge Base Articles: Provide detailed documentation and knowledge base articles to help users learn about the new functionality and how to use it. Proactive Communication: Don‘t wait for issues to arise before communicating. Keep users informed about the progress of the go-live and any potential impacts. Targeted Communication: Tailor communication to different audiences (e.g., end-users, IT staff, management).
Incorrect
Effective communication during a go-live is crucial for keeping stakeholders informed and managing expectations. The best strategy is to describe released functionality and provide knowledge base articles. Here‘s why: Clarity and Transparency: Clearly communicate what new features or changes are being released, so users understand what to expect. Knowledge Base Articles: Provide detailed documentation and knowledge base articles to help users learn about the new functionality and how to use it. Proactive Communication: Don‘t wait for issues to arise before communicating. Keep users informed about the progress of the go-live and any potential impacts. Targeted Communication: Tailor communication to different audiences (e.g., end-users, IT staff, management).
Unattempted
Effective communication during a go-live is crucial for keeping stakeholders informed and managing expectations. The best strategy is to describe released functionality and provide knowledge base articles. Here‘s why: Clarity and Transparency: Clearly communicate what new features or changes are being released, so users understand what to expect. Knowledge Base Articles: Provide detailed documentation and knowledge base articles to help users learn about the new functionality and how to use it. Proactive Communication: Don‘t wait for issues to arise before communicating. Keep users informed about the progress of the go-live and any potential impacts. Targeted Communication: Tailor communication to different audiences (e.g., end-users, IT staff, management).
Question 30 of 60
30. Question
What should be included in the go-live planning to handle and manage potential risks?
Correct
To effectively manage risks during a go-live, it‘s essential to have a back-out plan and mitigation plan for unforeseen circumstances. This includes: Back-out Plan: A detailed procedure for reverting to the previous system or version if the go-live encounters critical issues. Mitigation Plans: Prepared responses for anticipated risks (e.g., data migration errors, performance issues, user resistance). These plans outline steps to address these risks if they occur. Risk Assessment: A thorough risk assessment should be conducted before the go-live to identify potential risks and their likelihood.
Incorrect
To effectively manage risks during a go-live, it‘s essential to have a back-out plan and mitigation plan for unforeseen circumstances. This includes: Back-out Plan: A detailed procedure for reverting to the previous system or version if the go-live encounters critical issues. Mitigation Plans: Prepared responses for anticipated risks (e.g., data migration errors, performance issues, user resistance). These plans outline steps to address these risks if they occur. Risk Assessment: A thorough risk assessment should be conducted before the go-live to identify potential risks and their likelihood.
Unattempted
To effectively manage risks during a go-live, it‘s essential to have a back-out plan and mitigation plan for unforeseen circumstances. This includes: Back-out Plan: A detailed procedure for reverting to the previous system or version if the go-live encounters critical issues. Mitigation Plans: Prepared responses for anticipated risks (e.g., data migration errors, performance issues, user resistance). These plans outline steps to address these risks if they occur. Risk Assessment: A thorough risk assessment should be conducted before the go-live to identify potential risks and their likelihood.
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
In the process of establishing a ServiceNow instance strategy, a CTA must consider various factors that influence environment-related policies and standards. Which of the following details need to be considered when defining an instance structure? (Select 5)
Correct
When defining instance structure, considerations include development process standards, compliance/regulatory concerns, effort to keep instances in sync, the number of development teams, and cost considerations. Specific administrator names are an operational detail, not a structural definition.
Incorrect
When defining instance structure, considerations include development process standards, compliance/regulatory concerns, effort to keep instances in sync, the number of development teams, and cost considerations. Specific administrator names are an operational detail, not a structural definition.
Unattempted
When defining instance structure, considerations include development process standards, compliance/regulatory concerns, effort to keep instances in sync, the number of development teams, and cost considerations. Specific administrator names are an operational detail, not a structural definition.
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
A CTA is preparing to present the ‘to-be‘ architecture vision to key stakeholders. Which of the following are leading approaches and critical considerations for effectively presenting this analysis? (Select 4)
Correct
Leading approaches include agreeing on the format and output with stakeholders, maintaining transparency throughout the process, and aiming for the playback to be a validation of what stakeholders already know to facilitate buy-in. The presentation should not surprise stakeholders. Not all information gathered belongs in the diagram; it should include key capabilities and benefits. A transition architecture outlining phases is crucial.
Incorrect
Leading approaches include agreeing on the format and output with stakeholders, maintaining transparency throughout the process, and aiming for the playback to be a validation of what stakeholders already know to facilitate buy-in. The presentation should not surprise stakeholders. Not all information gathered belongs in the diagram; it should include key capabilities and benefits. A transition architecture outlining phases is crucial.
Unattempted
Leading approaches include agreeing on the format and output with stakeholders, maintaining transparency throughout the process, and aiming for the playback to be a validation of what stakeholders already know to facilitate buy-in. The presentation should not surprise stakeholders. Not all information gathered belongs in the diagram; it should include key capabilities and benefits. A transition architecture outlining phases is crucial.
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
When establishing governance steps for release and instance management, a CTA must consider various factors to balance risk mitigation and value realization. Which of the following are key governance considerations? (Select 4)
Correct
Key governance considerations for release and instance management include the operating model, platform scope, instance strategy, and methodology. Specifics like release cadence, tooling strategy (SDLC, Test Management), products/applications deployed, regression testing, and instance stacks are all part of these broader considerations. Compliance and audit are relevant to governance in general, but the source lists platform scope, instance strategy, methodology, and operating model.
Incorrect
Key governance considerations for release and instance management include the operating model, platform scope, instance strategy, and methodology. Specifics like release cadence, tooling strategy (SDLC, Test Management), products/applications deployed, regression testing, and instance stacks are all part of these broader considerations. Compliance and audit are relevant to governance in general, but the source lists platform scope, instance strategy, methodology, and operating model.
Unattempted
Key governance considerations for release and instance management include the operating model, platform scope, instance strategy, and methodology. Specifics like release cadence, tooling strategy (SDLC, Test Management), products/applications deployed, regression testing, and instance stacks are all part of these broader considerations. Compliance and audit are relevant to governance in general, but the source lists platform scope, instance strategy, methodology, and operating model.
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
Your customer needs to define an instance structure for their ServiceNow implementation. Which of the following factors should a CTA emphasize when determining the optimal number of instances in a stack? (Select 4)
Correct
The optimal number of instances depends on factors such as organization size and resources, number of process users and teams, number of processes and integrations, requirements for flexibility, and cost considerations. Hardware type is generally abstracted by ServiceNow as a SaaS provider.
Incorrect
The optimal number of instances depends on factors such as organization size and resources, number of process users and teams, number of processes and integrations, requirements for flexibility, and cost considerations. Hardware type is generally abstracted by ServiceNow as a SaaS provider.
Unattempted
The optimal number of instances depends on factors such as organization size and resources, number of process users and teams, number of processes and integrations, requirements for flexibility, and cost considerations. Hardware type is generally abstracted by ServiceNow as a SaaS provider.
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
A large enterprise is debating adopting a 5-stack instance structure (Dev-QA-UAT-Staging-Prod) for their ServiceNow implementation. Which of the following statements accurately describe the benefits of this complex instance structure? (Select 3)
Correct
The 5-stack instance structure offers benefits like deployment testing, a staging environment for troubleshooting, and increased parallel activity. It typically *increases* time to value and maintenance effort due to its complexity. It is more suited for large organizations with many processes and integrations, not small ones.
Incorrect
The 5-stack instance structure offers benefits like deployment testing, a staging environment for troubleshooting, and increased parallel activity. It typically *increases* time to value and maintenance effort due to its complexity. It is more suited for large organizations with many processes and integrations, not small ones.
Unattempted
The 5-stack instance structure offers benefits like deployment testing, a staging environment for troubleshooting, and increased parallel activity. It typically *increases* time to value and maintenance effort due to its complexity. It is more suited for large organizations with many processes and integrations, not small ones.
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
A CTA is advising a customer on choosing the most suitable code migration options for their ServiceNow instance. Which of the following are supported out-of-the-box code migration options? (Select 4)
Correct
Supported out-of-the-box code migration options include Application repositories, Source control integrations, Update sets, and Team development (though now superseded by Source Control). Instance migration is not an out-of-the-box code migration option in the same context; it‘s a cloning practice. Direct API calls can be for data, but not explicitly a *code* migration option in this context.
Incorrect
Supported out-of-the-box code migration options include Application repositories, Source control integrations, Update sets, and Team development (though now superseded by Source Control). Instance migration is not an out-of-the-box code migration option in the same context; it‘s a cloning practice. Direct API calls can be for data, but not explicitly a *code* migration option in this context.
Unattempted
Supported out-of-the-box code migration options include Application repositories, Source control integrations, Update sets, and Team development (though now superseded by Source Control). Instance migration is not an out-of-the-box code migration option in the same context; it‘s a cloning practice. Direct API calls can be for data, but not explicitly a *code* migration option in this context.
Question 37 of 60
37. Question
A CTA is explaining foundation data elements on the ServiceNow platform. Which of the following are considered core foundation data elements crucial for service management platforms? (Select 5)
Correct
The five foundation data elements are People, Company, Organizational structure, Location, and Groups. Service data is typically managed *in* ServiceNow via CSDM but is not considered foundational data itself, which is usually sourced externally.
Incorrect
The five foundation data elements are People, Company, Organizational structure, Location, and Groups. Service data is typically managed *in* ServiceNow via CSDM but is not considered foundational data itself, which is usually sourced externally.
Unattempted
The five foundation data elements are People, Company, Organizational structure, Location, and Groups. Service data is typically managed *in* ServiceNow via CSDM but is not considered foundational data itself, which is usually sourced externally.
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
When managing foundation data, a CTA needs to ensure good governance practices are in place. Which of the following principles are critical for effective governance of foundation data? (Select 3)
Correct
Key principles for foundation data governance include: the way data is configured influences process value and onboarding time; data can be sourced externally if timely and well-governed; and ownership of foundation data by a product owner is critical. Foundation data includes elements *supporting a capability*, not all data. Regular audits (e.g., monthly/quarterly) are recommended, not just annually.
Incorrect
Key principles for foundation data governance include: the way data is configured influences process value and onboarding time; data can be sourced externally if timely and well-governed; and ownership of foundation data by a product owner is critical. Foundation data includes elements *supporting a capability*, not all data. Regular audits (e.g., monthly/quarterly) are recommended, not just annually.
Unattempted
Key principles for foundation data governance include: the way data is configured influences process value and onboarding time; data can be sourced externally if timely and well-governed; and ownership of foundation data by a product owner is critical. Foundation data includes elements *supporting a capability*, not all data. Regular audits (e.g., monthly/quarterly) are recommended, not just annually.
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
Your customer requires a bulk data import into ServiceNow for their CMDB, and they have existing external systems. Which of the following bulk data import methods are supported by ServiceNow? (Select 3)
Correct
Bulk data import methods include external systems pushing data via web services to an import set, and MID Servers pulling data from external systems into an import set (e.g., JDBC, LDAP, FTP) via scheduled jobs, which is leveraged by OOB connectors like SCCM or LDAP loads. Manual entry is discouraged for bulk data. RTE is a transformation engine, not an import method itself. Extracting data via HTTP web services is for *export*, not import.
Incorrect
Bulk data import methods include external systems pushing data via web services to an import set, and MID Servers pulling data from external systems into an import set (e.g., JDBC, LDAP, FTP) via scheduled jobs, which is leveraged by OOB connectors like SCCM or LDAP loads. Manual entry is discouraged for bulk data. RTE is a transformation engine, not an import method itself. Extracting data via HTTP web services is for *export*, not import.
Unattempted
Bulk data import methods include external systems pushing data via web services to an import set, and MID Servers pulling data from external systems into an import set (e.g., JDBC, LDAP, FTP) via scheduled jobs, which is leveraged by OOB connectors like SCCM or LDAP loads. Manual entry is discouraged for bulk data. RTE is a transformation engine, not an import method itself. Extracting data via HTTP web services is for *export*, not import.
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
A CTA is designing transactional integrations for a ServiceNow instance, where data needs to be sent to external systems in near real-time based on platform transactions (e.g., incident creation). Which of the following approaches can be used for outbound transactional integrations? (Select 3)
Correct
Outbound transactional integrations can be implemented using scripts with business rules/actions triggering web service calls, workflows with orchestration activities, and Flow Designer/IntegrationHub spokes. Email-based operations are for inbound transactions. Direct database queries are for external systems pulling data, not outbound transactions initiated by ServiceNow. SOAP APIs are for inbound data access to ServiceNow tables.
Incorrect
Outbound transactional integrations can be implemented using scripts with business rules/actions triggering web service calls, workflows with orchestration activities, and Flow Designer/IntegrationHub spokes. Email-based operations are for inbound transactions. Direct database queries are for external systems pulling data, not outbound transactions initiated by ServiceNow. SOAP APIs are for inbound data access to ServiceNow tables.
Unattempted
Outbound transactional integrations can be implemented using scripts with business rules/actions triggering web service calls, workflows with orchestration activities, and Flow Designer/IntegrationHub spokes. Email-based operations are for inbound transactions. Direct database queries are for external systems pulling data, not outbound transactions initiated by ServiceNow. SOAP APIs are for inbound data access to ServiceNow tables.
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
When integrating ServiceNow with user authentication systems, particularly for Single Sign-On (SSO), a CTA must understand the mechanisms. Which of the following statements accurately describe aspects of user authentication integration with ServiceNow? (Select 5)
Correct
Microsoft AD is commonly integrated via LDAP for user management. The MID Server *cannot* be used for real-time authentication due to its nature. SAML 2.0 facilitates SSO via XML token exchange with an IdP. Both IdP-initiated and ServiceNow-initiated SSO processes involve SAML assertions and redirection for authentication. SAML user provisioning can automatically create new user records.
Incorrect
Microsoft AD is commonly integrated via LDAP for user management. The MID Server *cannot* be used for real-time authentication due to its nature. SAML 2.0 facilitates SSO via XML token exchange with an IdP. Both IdP-initiated and ServiceNow-initiated SSO processes involve SAML assertions and redirection for authentication. SAML user provisioning can automatically create new user records.
Unattempted
Microsoft AD is commonly integrated via LDAP for user management. The MID Server *cannot* be used for real-time authentication due to its nature. SAML 2.0 facilitates SSO via XML token exchange with an IdP. Both IdP-initiated and ServiceNow-initiated SSO processes involve SAML assertions and redirection for authentication. SAML user provisioning can automatically create new user records.
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
In the context of managing groups in ServiceNow, a CTA needs to differentiate between various group types and their principles. Which of the following statements correctly describe different types of groups and their associated leading practices? (Select 5)
Correct
Assignment groups allocate tasks. Permission/security groups manage role allocation. Roles should *not* be assigned directly to individuals; rather, roles are assigned to groups (personas), and individuals are members of those groups. Process groups participate without direct task assignment. RBAC restricts access based on roles. Approval groups handle approvals.
Incorrect
Assignment groups allocate tasks. Permission/security groups manage role allocation. Roles should *not* be assigned directly to individuals; rather, roles are assigned to groups (personas), and individuals are members of those groups. Process groups participate without direct task assignment. RBAC restricts access based on roles. Approval groups handle approvals.
Unattempted
Assignment groups allocate tasks. Permission/security groups manage role allocation. Roles should *not* be assigned directly to individuals; rather, roles are assigned to groups (personas), and individuals are members of those groups. Process groups participate without direct task assignment. RBAC restricts access based on roles. Approval groups handle approvals.
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
A Certified Technical Architect is advising a customer on their ServiceNow service portfolio management strategy. Which of the following statements accurately describe Service Portfolio Management (SPM) and its relationship with CSDM and service offerings? (Select 4)
Correct
SPM is about managing portfolio services. Each service requires at least one offering for SLAs and metrics. SPM fits in the ‘Sell/Consume‘ area of CSDM, not primarily ‘Manage Technical Services‘. It standardizes IT service documentation and management. Service offerings can be structured in many ways.
Incorrect
SPM is about managing portfolio services. Each service requires at least one offering for SLAs and metrics. SPM fits in the ‘Sell/Consume‘ area of CSDM, not primarily ‘Manage Technical Services‘. It standardizes IT service documentation and management. Service offerings can be structured in many ways.
Unattempted
SPM is about managing portfolio services. Each service requires at least one offering for SLAs and metrics. SPM fits in the ‘Sell/Consume‘ area of CSDM, not primarily ‘Manage Technical Services‘. It standardizes IT service documentation and management. Service offerings can be structured in many ways.
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
When preparing for customer interviews to identify current and to-be architecture, a CTA must ensure the interview process is effective. Which of the following are leading practices for conducting these interviews? (Select 5)
Correct
Leading practices for interviews include keeping them under one hour, limiting to two participants, asking open-ended questions, taking notes, and interviewing stakeholders with executive sponsorship. It‘s crucial to include a wide variety of personas beyond just IT, such as business users and support teams.
Incorrect
Leading practices for interviews include keeping them under one hour, limiting to two participants, asking open-ended questions, taking notes, and interviewing stakeholders with executive sponsorship. It‘s crucial to include a wide variety of personas beyond just IT, such as business users and support teams.
Unattempted
Leading practices for interviews include keeping them under one hour, limiting to two participants, asking open-ended questions, taking notes, and interviewing stakeholders with executive sponsorship. It‘s crucial to include a wide variety of personas beyond just IT, such as business users and support teams.
Question 45 of 60
45. Question
A CTA is tasked with creating an architecture diagram for the ‘to-be‘ state of a ServiceNow implementation. Which of the following items are appropriate to include in such a diagram to provide a comprehensive architectural view? (Select 3)
Correct
An architecture diagram should include ServiceNow instances, disparate systems, integrations, authentication systems, portals, data lakes, and external service providers. Detailed server configurations, key business services (unless they are part of the instance‘s service alignment), and individual user/group names are typically not included.
Incorrect
An architecture diagram should include ServiceNow instances, disparate systems, integrations, authentication systems, portals, data lakes, and external service providers. Detailed server configurations, key business services (unless they are part of the instance‘s service alignment), and individual user/group names are typically not included.
Unattempted
An architecture diagram should include ServiceNow instances, disparate systems, integrations, authentication systems, portals, data lakes, and external service providers. Detailed server configurations, key business services (unless they are part of the instance‘s service alignment), and individual user/group names are typically not included.
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
When documenting and analyzing current architecture findings, a CTA might use a heatmap to represent data and identify required effort. Which of the following statements accurately describe the characteristics or effective use of a heatmap in this context? (Select 4)
Correct
A heatmap uses colors to represent values, indicating effort. It shows effort for both customer (CUS) and engagement (ENG). CUS is customer internal effort (e.g., process alignment). ENG is the effort in the tool or from professional services. CTAs must be aware that heatmaps are ineffective for colorblind customers.
Incorrect
A heatmap uses colors to represent values, indicating effort. It shows effort for both customer (CUS) and engagement (ENG). CUS is customer internal effort (e.g., process alignment). ENG is the effort in the tool or from professional services. CTAs must be aware that heatmaps are ineffective for colorblind customers.
Unattempted
A heatmap uses colors to represent values, indicating effort. It shows effort for both customer (CUS) and engagement (ENG). CUS is customer internal effort (e.g., process alignment). ENG is the effort in the tool or from professional services. CTAs must be aware that heatmaps are ineffective for colorblind customers.
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
Your customer is considering implementing multiple production instances of ServiceNow. While this strategy has specific use cases, it also presents challenges. Which of the following are common challenges associated with a multi-production instance architecture? (Select 4)
Correct
Challenges with multi-production instances include duplication of resource/effort, sharing common data (often requiring solutions like Instance Data Replication), executing processes across instances (requiring Remote Process Sync), and managing consolidated views for teams (Remote Tables). It generally *increases* license costs and administrative overhead. Other integrated tools must support this architecture.
Incorrect
Challenges with multi-production instances include duplication of resource/effort, sharing common data (often requiring solutions like Instance Data Replication), executing processes across instances (requiring Remote Process Sync), and managing consolidated views for teams (Remote Tables). It generally *increases* license costs and administrative overhead. Other integrated tools must support this architecture.
Unattempted
Challenges with multi-production instances include duplication of resource/effort, sharing common data (often requiring solutions like Instance Data Replication), executing processes across instances (requiring Remote Process Sync), and managing consolidated views for teams (Remote Tables). It generally *increases* license costs and administrative overhead. Other integrated tools must support this architecture.
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
When assessing the current architecture, a CTA frequently encounters challenges that can impede the process. Which of the following are common pitfalls to avoid during an architectural assessment? (Select 3)
Correct
Common challenges include proceeding without executive sponsorship and buy-in, only involving IT teams (missing business context), and involving too many people at once in interviews. While not explicitly listed as a ‘pitfall to avoid‘ in the provided source, the best practice is to gather all relevant information and artifacts from the customer, implying not solely relying on one source. The overall process emphasizes understanding challenges first before benefits of the future state. Transparency and buy-in are critical goals to achieve.
Incorrect
Common challenges include proceeding without executive sponsorship and buy-in, only involving IT teams (missing business context), and involving too many people at once in interviews. While not explicitly listed as a ‘pitfall to avoid‘ in the provided source, the best practice is to gather all relevant information and artifacts from the customer, implying not solely relying on one source. The overall process emphasizes understanding challenges first before benefits of the future state. Transparency and buy-in are critical goals to achieve.
Unattempted
Common challenges include proceeding without executive sponsorship and buy-in, only involving IT teams (missing business context), and involving too many people at once in interviews. While not explicitly listed as a ‘pitfall to avoid‘ in the provided source, the best practice is to gather all relevant information and artifacts from the customer, implying not solely relying on one source. The overall process emphasizes understanding challenges first before benefits of the future state. Transparency and buy-in are critical goals to achieve.
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
Your customer wants to protect sensitive data within ServiceNow through encryption. Which of the following statements accurately compare Platform Encryption (PE), Column Level Encryption (CLE), Database Encryption, and Full Disk Encryption (FDE)? (Select 4)
Correct
PE (or CLE Enterprise) encrypts supported field types and attachments. Database Encryption encrypts all stored data in the database, protecting against file exfiltration, is transparent, and supports cloning. FDE is hardware encryption that protects against physical loss/theft of disk drives when inactive. Edge Encryption uses an on-prem proxy and customer-owned keys, distinct from database encryption.
Incorrect
PE (or CLE Enterprise) encrypts supported field types and attachments. Database Encryption encrypts all stored data in the database, protecting against file exfiltration, is transparent, and supports cloning. FDE is hardware encryption that protects against physical loss/theft of disk drives when inactive. Edge Encryption uses an on-prem proxy and customer-owned keys, distinct from database encryption.
Unattempted
PE (or CLE Enterprise) encrypts supported field types and attachments. Database Encryption encrypts all stored data in the database, protecting against file exfiltration, is transparent, and supports cloning. FDE is hardware encryption that protects against physical loss/theft of disk drives when inactive. Edge Encryption uses an on-prem proxy and customer-owned keys, distinct from database encryption.
Question 50 of 60
50. Question
A CTA is outlining the components of data governance for a customer‘s ServiceNow implementation. Which of the following are key components of data governance and their primary objectives? (Select 4)
Correct
The four main components of data governance are Data Ownership, Data Management, Data Architecture, and Data Security. Data Reporting and Data Migration are related activities but not core components of the governance framework itself.
Incorrect
The four main components of data governance are Data Ownership, Data Management, Data Architecture, and Data Security. Data Reporting and Data Migration are related activities but not core components of the governance framework itself.
Unattempted
The four main components of data governance are Data Ownership, Data Management, Data Architecture, and Data Security. Data Reporting and Data Migration are related activities but not core components of the governance framework itself.
Question 51 of 60
51. Question
When defining access policies for the ServiceNow platform, a CTA needs to ensure comprehensive coverage. Which of the following questions are critical to address when establishing these policies? (Select 5)
Correct
When defining access policies, key questions include how temporary access is granted, what access levels users should have, required training/certification, plugin activation consultation and approval, and system property modification approval. Support processes for upgrades are part of upgrade management policies, not platform access policies directly.
Incorrect
When defining access policies, key questions include how temporary access is granted, what access levels users should have, required training/certification, plugin activation consultation and approval, and system property modification approval. Support processes for upgrades are part of upgrade management policies, not platform access policies directly.
Unattempted
When defining access policies, key questions include how temporary access is granted, what access levels users should have, required training/certification, plugin activation consultation and approval, and system property modification approval. Support processes for upgrades are part of upgrade management policies, not platform access policies directly.
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
A CTA is consulting a customer on testing strategies throughout their ServiceNow implementation lifecycle. Which of the following types of testing are generally performed as functional testing? (Select 4)
Correct
Functional testing verifies that the system performs its specified functions. Unit testing, system testing (which includes integration), and User Acceptance Testing (UAT) are all types of functional testing. Smoke testing is also a type of functional test. Performance and load testing are types of non-functional testing, focusing on how a system operates.
Incorrect
Functional testing verifies that the system performs its specified functions. Unit testing, system testing (which includes integration), and User Acceptance Testing (UAT) are all types of functional testing. Smoke testing is also a type of functional test. Performance and load testing are types of non-functional testing, focusing on how a system operates.
Unattempted
Functional testing verifies that the system performs its specified functions. Unit testing, system testing (which includes integration), and User Acceptance Testing (UAT) are all types of functional testing. Smoke testing is also a type of functional test. Performance and load testing are types of non-functional testing, focusing on how a system operates.
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
Your customer is planning for the go-live of a new ServiceNow module and wants to ensure effective communication throughout the process. Which of the following communication strategies are recommended for the pre-go-live phase? (Select 3)
Correct
Pre-go-live communication focuses on setting expectations, reinforcing awareness of the change and its reasons, and outlining changes to individual job responsibilities and personas. Mentioning live modules, support details, and building competency are typically part of go-live or post-go-live communication.
Incorrect
Pre-go-live communication focuses on setting expectations, reinforcing awareness of the change and its reasons, and outlining changes to individual job responsibilities and personas. Mentioning live modules, support details, and building competency are typically part of go-live or post-go-live communication.
Unattempted
Pre-go-live communication focuses on setting expectations, reinforcing awareness of the change and its reasons, and outlining changes to individual job responsibilities and personas. Mentioning live modules, support details, and building competency are typically part of go-live or post-go-live communication.
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
A CTA is preparing to identify a customer‘s current architecture and understands the importance of asking the right questions. Which of the following questions are categorized under the ‘Data Questions‘ domain when interviewing stakeholders? (Select 4)
Correct
Data Questions focus on data ownership decisions, data availability/reporting, data standards, integration standards, and security policies related to data. Questions about current applications, or development/production setup, fall under Environment or Application questions.
Incorrect
Data Questions focus on data ownership decisions, data availability/reporting, data standards, integration standards, and security policies related to data. Questions about current applications, or development/production setup, fall under Environment or Application questions.
Unattempted
Data Questions focus on data ownership decisions, data availability/reporting, data standards, integration standards, and security policies related to data. Questions about current applications, or development/production setup, fall under Environment or Application questions.
Question 55 of 60
55. Question
In the shared security model, responsibilities are distributed between ServiceNow, the customer, and colocation providers. Which of the following security aspects are primarily the responsibility of ServiceNow? (Select 4)
Correct
ServiceNow is responsible for physical security of data centers, providing authentication and authorization capabilities, managing encryption keys when not customer-owned, and vulnerability management of the platform. Secure instance configuration, employee vetting (customer staff), and data classification are customer responsibilities.
Incorrect
ServiceNow is responsible for physical security of data centers, providing authentication and authorization capabilities, managing encryption keys when not customer-owned, and vulnerability management of the platform. Secure instance configuration, employee vetting (customer staff), and data classification are customer responsibilities.
Unattempted
ServiceNow is responsible for physical security of data centers, providing authentication and authorization capabilities, managing encryption keys when not customer-owned, and vulnerability management of the platform. Secure instance configuration, employee vetting (customer staff), and data classification are customer responsibilities.
Question 56 of 60
56. Question
A CTA is advising on master data types and authoritative sources. Which of the following accurately describes a master data type that models the core business structure and commonly referenced data, and related best practices? (Select 3)
Correct
Foundation platform data‘ models the core business structure and commonly referenced data like users, groups, companies, departments, and locations. ‘Common service data‘ includes service model and CMDB data. ‘Integrations data‘ is data from external sources, not KPIs. ‘Transactional data records‘ are data from transactions like incidents. ‘Platform configuration data‘ includes encryption keys. Identifying the authoritative source involves knowing data ownership and update management processes, and APM can assist in clarifying master sources.
Incorrect
Foundation platform data‘ models the core business structure and commonly referenced data like users, groups, companies, departments, and locations. ‘Common service data‘ includes service model and CMDB data. ‘Integrations data‘ is data from external sources, not KPIs. ‘Transactional data records‘ are data from transactions like incidents. ‘Platform configuration data‘ includes encryption keys. Identifying the authoritative source involves knowing data ownership and update management processes, and APM can assist in clarifying master sources.
Unattempted
Foundation platform data‘ models the core business structure and commonly referenced data like users, groups, companies, departments, and locations. ‘Common service data‘ includes service model and CMDB data. ‘Integrations data‘ is data from external sources, not KPIs. ‘Transactional data records‘ are data from transactions like incidents. ‘Platform configuration data‘ includes encryption keys. Identifying the authoritative source involves knowing data ownership and update management processes, and APM can assist in clarifying master sources.
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
In an organization with multiple ServiceNow instances, a CTA must consider various environmental strategies. Which of the following statements accurately describe scenarios or considerations for multi-development or multi-production instance architectures? (Select 4)
Correct
Multi-development instances can be split by product or release. Providing external partners separate dev instances protects customer data. Customer data residency is a key reason for multi-production instances. Multi-production instances *complicate* data sharing and process execution. For multi-geography, Remote Tables can consolidate work without switching queues.
Incorrect
Multi-development instances can be split by product or release. Providing external partners separate dev instances protects customer data. Customer data residency is a key reason for multi-production instances. Multi-production instances *complicate* data sharing and process execution. For multi-geography, Remote Tables can consolidate work without switching queues.
Unattempted
Multi-development instances can be split by product or release. Providing external partners separate dev instances protects customer data. Customer data residency is a key reason for multi-production instances. Multi-production instances *complicate* data sharing and process execution. For multi-geography, Remote Tables can consolidate work without switching queues.
Question 58 of 60
58. Question
When managing data throughout its lifecycle on ServiceNow, from creation to archiving, a CTA should implement various data management leading practices. Which of the following are part of these practices? (Select 4)
Correct
Data management leading practices include defining retention/archiving standards, using data certification for validation, setting audit expectations, and classifying data for access/reuse/audit. Data should be archived if unused, but *aligned to requirements*. Table rotation is for *large and frequently updated* tables like logs, to keep them working smoothly.
Incorrect
Data management leading practices include defining retention/archiving standards, using data certification for validation, setting audit expectations, and classifying data for access/reuse/audit. Data should be archived if unused, but *aligned to requirements*. Table rotation is for *large and frequently updated* tables like logs, to keep them working smoothly.
Unattempted
Data management leading practices include defining retention/archiving standards, using data certification for validation, setting audit expectations, and classifying data for access/reuse/audit. Data should be archived if unused, but *aligned to requirements*. Table rotation is for *large and frequently updated* tables like logs, to keep them working smoothly.
Question 59 of 60
59. Question
Effective ServiceNow governance relies on clear ‘golden rules‘ or principles. Which of the following statements represent such golden rules that help coordinate governance decisions and activities? (Select 4)
Correct
Golden rules include ‘Out of the box‘, ‘80/20 rule‘, ‘Single system of record‘, ‘Automation‘ (not manual), ‘Outcomes over features‘ (not features over outcomes), and ‘User experience‘.
Incorrect
Golden rules include ‘Out of the box‘, ‘80/20 rule‘, ‘Single system of record‘, ‘Automation‘ (not manual), ‘Outcomes over features‘ (not features over outcomes), and ‘User experience‘.
Unattempted
Golden rules include ‘Out of the box‘, ‘80/20 rule‘, ‘Single system of record‘, ‘Automation‘ (not manual), ‘Outcomes over features‘ (not features over outcomes), and ‘User experience‘.
Question 60 of 60
60. Question
A CTA is consulting on a multi-instance ServiceNow architecture. Which of the following represent crucial ‘rules‘ or principles that should guide the decision-making for implementing such an architecture? (Select 4)
Correct
Key rules for multi-instance architecture include: customers and most process users should work with a single instance; every instance should contain all needed data for end-to-end visibility; heavy integrations generally mean high cost and often suggest multi-instance is not truly needed; and external integrated tools must support the multi-instance setup. Separate instances for each workflow are generally discouraged as they introduce complication.
Incorrect
Key rules for multi-instance architecture include: customers and most process users should work with a single instance; every instance should contain all needed data for end-to-end visibility; heavy integrations generally mean high cost and often suggest multi-instance is not truly needed; and external integrated tools must support the multi-instance setup. Separate instances for each workflow are generally discouraged as they introduce complication.
Unattempted
Key rules for multi-instance architecture include: customers and most process users should work with a single instance; every instance should contain all needed data for end-to-end visibility; heavy integrations generally mean high cost and often suggest multi-instance is not truly needed; and external integrated tools must support the multi-instance setup. Separate instances for each workflow are generally discouraged as they introduce complication.
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