You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:
Your results are here!! for" ServiceNow CIS - Risk and Compliance Practice Test 2 "
0 of 60 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0
Average score
Your score
ServiceNow CIS - Risk and Compliance
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
You can review your answers by clicking on “View Answers” option. Important Note : Open Reference Documentation Links in New Tab (Right Click and Open in New Tab).
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Answered
Review
Question 1 of 60
1. Question
What would you use in order to accommodate a customerÂ’s unique process around policy approvals? For example, each policy needs a second layer of approval.
Correct
Correct:
C. Modify workflow or flow
Modifying the workflow or flow is the appropriate solution to accommodate unique approval requirements such as adding a second approval layer for policies.
ServiceNow workflows and flows are designed to manage approval logic, sequencing, and conditions.
This approach ensures the approval process remains automated, scalable, auditable, and aligned with the policy lifecycle.
Incorrect:
A. Add a UI Action to track who the stakeholders are
A UI Action only provides a button or trigger on the form and does not control or enforce approval processes.
It cannot manage multi-step approval logic or ensure that an approval sequence is followed.
B. Add a new related list to keep track of who has already approved it and who hasnÂ’t approved yet
A related list can store information but does not drive or enforce an approval process.
Approval logic must be governed by a workflow/flow, not by passive data in a related list.
D. Create a new field and create notifications
A field with notifications only informs users, but it does not manage or enforce structured approval requirements.
Notifications cannot replace the process control, sequencing, escalation, and audit capability that workflows or flows provide.
Incorrect
Correct:
C. Modify workflow or flow
Modifying the workflow or flow is the appropriate solution to accommodate unique approval requirements such as adding a second approval layer for policies.
ServiceNow workflows and flows are designed to manage approval logic, sequencing, and conditions.
This approach ensures the approval process remains automated, scalable, auditable, and aligned with the policy lifecycle.
Incorrect:
A. Add a UI Action to track who the stakeholders are
A UI Action only provides a button or trigger on the form and does not control or enforce approval processes.
It cannot manage multi-step approval logic or ensure that an approval sequence is followed.
B. Add a new related list to keep track of who has already approved it and who hasnÂ’t approved yet
A related list can store information but does not drive or enforce an approval process.
Approval logic must be governed by a workflow/flow, not by passive data in a related list.
D. Create a new field and create notifications
A field with notifications only informs users, but it does not manage or enforce structured approval requirements.
Notifications cannot replace the process control, sequencing, escalation, and audit capability that workflows or flows provide.
Unattempted
Correct:
C. Modify workflow or flow
Modifying the workflow or flow is the appropriate solution to accommodate unique approval requirements such as adding a second approval layer for policies.
ServiceNow workflows and flows are designed to manage approval logic, sequencing, and conditions.
This approach ensures the approval process remains automated, scalable, auditable, and aligned with the policy lifecycle.
Incorrect:
A. Add a UI Action to track who the stakeholders are
A UI Action only provides a button or trigger on the form and does not control or enforce approval processes.
It cannot manage multi-step approval logic or ensure that an approval sequence is followed.
B. Add a new related list to keep track of who has already approved it and who hasnÂ’t approved yet
A related list can store information but does not drive or enforce an approval process.
Approval logic must be governed by a workflow/flow, not by passive data in a related list.
D. Create a new field and create notifications
A field with notifications only informs users, but it does not manage or enforce structured approval requirements.
Notifications cannot replace the process control, sequencing, escalation, and audit capability that workflows or flows provide.
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
What system property do you use to enable User Hierarchy?
C. Related list ‘Entity Filter‘ on the ‘Entity Type‘ form
The most direct and efficient place to create an Entity Filter is from the Entity Type form.
Each Entity Type can have one or more filters that define which records in the system should be generated as Entities.
Creating the filter here ensures the filter is immediately linked to that specific Entity Type and can be quickly used to generate Entities.
Incorrect:
A. Risk > Scoping > Entity Filters
This navigation path does not exist for creating Entity Filters in the Risk application.
Entity Filters are tied to Entity Types and are not created from the Risk Scoping module.
B. Related list ‘Entity Filter‘ on the ‘Entity Class‘ form
Entity Filters are not created or managed from the Entity Class level.
Entity Class defines a broader classification and is not the location where filters are set for generating Entities.
D. Policy and Compliance > Scoping > Entity Filters
This path is not intended for creating Entity Filters.
Policy and Compliance modules deal with compliance scoping, not Entity creation logic tied to Entity Types.
Incorrect
Correct:
C. Related list ‘Entity Filter‘ on the ‘Entity Type‘ form
The most direct and efficient place to create an Entity Filter is from the Entity Type form.
Each Entity Type can have one or more filters that define which records in the system should be generated as Entities.
Creating the filter here ensures the filter is immediately linked to that specific Entity Type and can be quickly used to generate Entities.
Incorrect:
A. Risk > Scoping > Entity Filters
This navigation path does not exist for creating Entity Filters in the Risk application.
Entity Filters are tied to Entity Types and are not created from the Risk Scoping module.
B. Related list ‘Entity Filter‘ on the ‘Entity Class‘ form
Entity Filters are not created or managed from the Entity Class level.
Entity Class defines a broader classification and is not the location where filters are set for generating Entities.
D. Policy and Compliance > Scoping > Entity Filters
This path is not intended for creating Entity Filters.
Policy and Compliance modules deal with compliance scoping, not Entity creation logic tied to Entity Types.
Unattempted
Correct:
C. Related list ‘Entity Filter‘ on the ‘Entity Type‘ form
The most direct and efficient place to create an Entity Filter is from the Entity Type form.
Each Entity Type can have one or more filters that define which records in the system should be generated as Entities.
Creating the filter here ensures the filter is immediately linked to that specific Entity Type and can be quickly used to generate Entities.
Incorrect:
A. Risk > Scoping > Entity Filters
This navigation path does not exist for creating Entity Filters in the Risk application.
Entity Filters are tied to Entity Types and are not created from the Risk Scoping module.
B. Related list ‘Entity Filter‘ on the ‘Entity Class‘ form
Entity Filters are not created or managed from the Entity Class level.
Entity Class defines a broader classification and is not the location where filters are set for generating Entities.
D. Policy and Compliance > Scoping > Entity Filters
This path is not intended for creating Entity Filters.
Policy and Compliance modules deal with compliance scoping, not Entity creation logic tied to Entity Types.
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
Which of the following is the correct statement about Risk Scoring formulas?
Correct
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) x Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Used in Quantitative risk scoring.
Incorrect
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) x Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Used in Quantitative risk scoring.
Unattempted
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) x Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Used in Quantitative risk scoring.
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
What is not true when it comes to the Entity Filter?
Correct
Record is removed!
Incorrect
Record is removed!
Unattempted
Record is removed!
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
Which filter navigation syntax displays the default form view of the Risk table in the Content Frame?
Correct
sn_risk_risk.FORM opens a form in a new window/tab
Incorrect
sn_risk_risk.FORM opens a form in a new window/tab
Unattempted
sn_risk_risk.FORM opens a form in a new window/tab
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
What script include allows you to change who can edit the rules in the Review state?
Correct
Correct:
B. ComplianceUtils
This script include is responsible for enforcing key compliance rules, including permissions that control who can edit records in specific states, such as the Review state.
It contains logic that can be customized to modify which roles or users are allowed to make changes during the review stage of compliance records.
Administrators use this script include when adjusting editing rules without altering core platform behavior.
Incorrect:
A. AssessmentStrategy
This script include is used to define and extend assessment-related logic, including how assessments are generated or processed.
It does not control edit permissions or behavior for records in the Review state.
C. ComplianceScoreCalculator
This script include calculates compliance scores based on citations, controls, and related evidence.
Its purpose is scoring logic, not permissions or edit control of compliance records.
D. ControlGeneratorStrategy
This script include is used for generating controls from authority documents or citations.
It has no role in determining who can edit a record in the Review state.
Incorrect
Correct:
B. ComplianceUtils
This script include is responsible for enforcing key compliance rules, including permissions that control who can edit records in specific states, such as the Review state.
It contains logic that can be customized to modify which roles or users are allowed to make changes during the review stage of compliance records.
Administrators use this script include when adjusting editing rules without altering core platform behavior.
Incorrect:
A. AssessmentStrategy
This script include is used to define and extend assessment-related logic, including how assessments are generated or processed.
It does not control edit permissions or behavior for records in the Review state.
C. ComplianceScoreCalculator
This script include calculates compliance scores based on citations, controls, and related evidence.
Its purpose is scoring logic, not permissions or edit control of compliance records.
D. ControlGeneratorStrategy
This script include is used for generating controls from authority documents or citations.
It has no role in determining who can edit a record in the Review state.
Unattempted
Correct:
B. ComplianceUtils
This script include is responsible for enforcing key compliance rules, including permissions that control who can edit records in specific states, such as the Review state.
It contains logic that can be customized to modify which roles or users are allowed to make changes during the review stage of compliance records.
Administrators use this script include when adjusting editing rules without altering core platform behavior.
Incorrect:
A. AssessmentStrategy
This script include is used to define and extend assessment-related logic, including how assessments are generated or processed.
It does not control edit permissions or behavior for records in the Review state.
C. ComplianceScoreCalculator
This script include calculates compliance scores based on citations, controls, and related evidence.
Its purpose is scoring logic, not permissions or edit control of compliance records.
D. ControlGeneratorStrategy
This script include is used for generating controls from authority documents or citations.
It has no role in determining who can edit a record in the Review state.
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
Where should you navigate to set up the impact assessment template for Regulatory Change Management?
What information does the System Dictionary contain?
Correct
The system dictionary is a table, called Dictionary Entry [sys_dictionary] , that contains details for each table and the definition for every column on each table in an instance. Each row in the system dictionary represents either a table or a column in one of the tables.
Incorrect
The system dictionary is a table, called Dictionary Entry [sys_dictionary] , that contains details for each table and the definition for every column on each table in an instance. Each row in the system dictionary represents either a table or a column in one of the tables.
Unattempted
The system dictionary is a table, called Dictionary Entry [sys_dictionary] , that contains details for each table and the definition for every column on each table in an instance. Each row in the system dictionary represents either a table or a column in one of the tables.
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
Which of the following are triggers for automatic creation of an issue?
Select 2 answers.
Correct
Correct:
A. Attestation failure
An attestation is used to confirm ongoing compliance or control effectiveness.
When an attestation fails, it represents a breakdown in compliance, which automatically triggers the creation of an issue.
This ensures that failed attestations are investigated and remediated through the formal issue management process.
C. Indicator result is failed or not passed
Indicators measure control or process performance against defined thresholds.
When an indicator result fails or falls outside acceptable limits, an issue is automatically generated to highlight the failure.
This automation is intended to proactively surface compliance or risk-related deviations without manual intervention.
Incorrect:
B. Control tests have been assigned but not tested
Assigned but untested control activities do not automatically generate issues.
Issues are triggered by actual failures or negative results, not by incomplete task assignments or pending actions.
D. Policy Exception not approved
A policy exception that is not approved does not generate an automatic issue.
Policy exceptions follow an approval workflow, and rejection or non-approval does not serve as a trigger for issue creation.
Incorrect
Correct:
A. Attestation failure
An attestation is used to confirm ongoing compliance or control effectiveness.
When an attestation fails, it represents a breakdown in compliance, which automatically triggers the creation of an issue.
This ensures that failed attestations are investigated and remediated through the formal issue management process.
C. Indicator result is failed or not passed
Indicators measure control or process performance against defined thresholds.
When an indicator result fails or falls outside acceptable limits, an issue is automatically generated to highlight the failure.
This automation is intended to proactively surface compliance or risk-related deviations without manual intervention.
Incorrect:
B. Control tests have been assigned but not tested
Assigned but untested control activities do not automatically generate issues.
Issues are triggered by actual failures or negative results, not by incomplete task assignments or pending actions.
D. Policy Exception not approved
A policy exception that is not approved does not generate an automatic issue.
Policy exceptions follow an approval workflow, and rejection or non-approval does not serve as a trigger for issue creation.
Unattempted
Correct:
A. Attestation failure
An attestation is used to confirm ongoing compliance or control effectiveness.
When an attestation fails, it represents a breakdown in compliance, which automatically triggers the creation of an issue.
This ensures that failed attestations are investigated and remediated through the formal issue management process.
C. Indicator result is failed or not passed
Indicators measure control or process performance against defined thresholds.
When an indicator result fails or falls outside acceptable limits, an issue is automatically generated to highlight the failure.
This automation is intended to proactively surface compliance or risk-related deviations without manual intervention.
Incorrect:
B. Control tests have been assigned but not tested
Assigned but untested control activities do not automatically generate issues.
Issues are triggered by actual failures or negative results, not by incomplete task assignments or pending actions.
D. Policy Exception not approved
A policy exception that is not approved does not generate an automatic issue.
Policy exceptions follow an approval workflow, and rejection or non-approval does not serve as a trigger for issue creation.
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
Where are the external legislations and regulations stored?
Correct
Correct:
C. Authority documents
External legislations, regulations, and standards such as ISO, HIPAA, GDPR, SOX, and PCI-DSS are stored as Authority Documents within GRC.
These documents define the high-level regulatory requirements that organizations must comply with.
Authority Documents serve as the foundation for mapping citations, control objectives, and controls in the compliance hierarchy.
Incorrect:
A. Control objective
A Control Objective represents a required outcome derived from authority documents or regulatory sources.
It does not store the regulations themselves; it only breaks down regulatory requirements into more actionable expectations.
B. Control
A Control is an internal mechanism or activity designed to meet one or more control objectives.
Controls inherit and map compliance requirements but do not store external regulatory content.
D. Policy
A Policy contains internal organizational rules and guidelines for behavior, processes, or system use.
Policies are created in alignment with authority documents but do not store external regulations.
Incorrect
Correct:
C. Authority documents
External legislations, regulations, and standards such as ISO, HIPAA, GDPR, SOX, and PCI-DSS are stored as Authority Documents within GRC.
These documents define the high-level regulatory requirements that organizations must comply with.
Authority Documents serve as the foundation for mapping citations, control objectives, and controls in the compliance hierarchy.
Incorrect:
A. Control objective
A Control Objective represents a required outcome derived from authority documents or regulatory sources.
It does not store the regulations themselves; it only breaks down regulatory requirements into more actionable expectations.
B. Control
A Control is an internal mechanism or activity designed to meet one or more control objectives.
Controls inherit and map compliance requirements but do not store external regulatory content.
D. Policy
A Policy contains internal organizational rules and guidelines for behavior, processes, or system use.
Policies are created in alignment with authority documents but do not store external regulations.
Unattempted
Correct:
C. Authority documents
External legislations, regulations, and standards such as ISO, HIPAA, GDPR, SOX, and PCI-DSS are stored as Authority Documents within GRC.
These documents define the high-level regulatory requirements that organizations must comply with.
Authority Documents serve as the foundation for mapping citations, control objectives, and controls in the compliance hierarchy.
Incorrect:
A. Control objective
A Control Objective represents a required outcome derived from authority documents or regulatory sources.
It does not store the regulations themselves; it only breaks down regulatory requirements into more actionable expectations.
B. Control
A Control is an internal mechanism or activity designed to meet one or more control objectives.
Controls inherit and map compliance requirements but do not store external regulatory content.
D. Policy
A Policy contains internal organizational rules and guidelines for behavior, processes, or system use.
Policies are created in alignment with authority documents but do not store external regulations.
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
Which collection of tables extend the Item [sn_grc_item] table? Select 2 answers.
Correct
Correct:
C. Control
The Control table extends the Item table.
Controls represent internal measures implemented to meet compliance or risk requirements, and they inherit common item properties such as ownership, lifecycle states, and related records.
Extending the Item table ensures consistency and reuse of common fields across multiple GRC components.
D. Risk
The Risk table also extends the Item table.
Risks represent potential events or conditions that could negatively impact the organization, and by extending the Item table, they share a common structure with other GRC items.
This extension supports standardized tracking, reporting, and lifecycle handling for risk-related records.
Incorrect:
A. Citation
A Citation does not extend the Item table.
Citations represent specific clauses or requirements sourced from authority documents, and they function as part of the compliance structure rather than as GRC items.
B. Content
Content does not extend the Item table.
It is used for storing related information within GRC, but it does not function as a core GRC item in the way Controls and Risks do, and therefore does not inherit from the Item table.
Incorrect
Correct:
C. Control
The Control table extends the Item table.
Controls represent internal measures implemented to meet compliance or risk requirements, and they inherit common item properties such as ownership, lifecycle states, and related records.
Extending the Item table ensures consistency and reuse of common fields across multiple GRC components.
D. Risk
The Risk table also extends the Item table.
Risks represent potential events or conditions that could negatively impact the organization, and by extending the Item table, they share a common structure with other GRC items.
This extension supports standardized tracking, reporting, and lifecycle handling for risk-related records.
Incorrect:
A. Citation
A Citation does not extend the Item table.
Citations represent specific clauses or requirements sourced from authority documents, and they function as part of the compliance structure rather than as GRC items.
B. Content
Content does not extend the Item table.
It is used for storing related information within GRC, but it does not function as a core GRC item in the way Controls and Risks do, and therefore does not inherit from the Item table.
Unattempted
Correct:
C. Control
The Control table extends the Item table.
Controls represent internal measures implemented to meet compliance or risk requirements, and they inherit common item properties such as ownership, lifecycle states, and related records.
Extending the Item table ensures consistency and reuse of common fields across multiple GRC components.
D. Risk
The Risk table also extends the Item table.
Risks represent potential events or conditions that could negatively impact the organization, and by extending the Item table, they share a common structure with other GRC items.
This extension supports standardized tracking, reporting, and lifecycle handling for risk-related records.
Incorrect:
A. Citation
A Citation does not extend the Item table.
Citations represent specific clauses or requirements sourced from authority documents, and they function as part of the compliance structure rather than as GRC items.
B. Content
Content does not extend the Item table.
It is used for storing related information within GRC, but it does not function as a core GRC item in the way Controls and Risks do, and therefore does not inherit from the Item table.
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
If the advanced planning capability is chosen during the creation of the audit plan, what additional related lists will appear on the engagement record, supplementing those already displayed with basic planning?
Select 3 answers.
Correct
Correct:
A. Time card
When advanced planning is enabled for an audit plan, Time Cards become available on the engagement.
This allows tracking of effort and time spent by audit resources against the engagement.
It helps audit managers monitor work allocation, time utilization, and overall audit execution effort.
B. Resource plan
A Resource Plan related list is added as part of advanced planning.
It enables resource allocation and planning, allowing assignment and forecasting of audit team members and their availability.
This supports better workload balancing and resource scheduling for the engagement.
C. Cost plan
Cost Plans are also introduced when advanced planning is used.
This feature allows tracking and estimating engagement-related financials, such as labor cost, travel, and other audit expenses.
It supports budgeting and cost transparency as part of audit oversight.
Incorrect:
D. Entities
Entities are not tied to advanced planning.
They may appear based on the engagement scope, but they are not introduced as an additional related list due to advanced planning.
E. Milestones
Milestones may already exist as part of basic planning functionality.
They are not part of the advanced planning feature set and therefore are not added as a result of selecting advanced planning.
Incorrect
Correct:
A. Time card
When advanced planning is enabled for an audit plan, Time Cards become available on the engagement.
This allows tracking of effort and time spent by audit resources against the engagement.
It helps audit managers monitor work allocation, time utilization, and overall audit execution effort.
B. Resource plan
A Resource Plan related list is added as part of advanced planning.
It enables resource allocation and planning, allowing assignment and forecasting of audit team members and their availability.
This supports better workload balancing and resource scheduling for the engagement.
C. Cost plan
Cost Plans are also introduced when advanced planning is used.
This feature allows tracking and estimating engagement-related financials, such as labor cost, travel, and other audit expenses.
It supports budgeting and cost transparency as part of audit oversight.
Incorrect:
D. Entities
Entities are not tied to advanced planning.
They may appear based on the engagement scope, but they are not introduced as an additional related list due to advanced planning.
E. Milestones
Milestones may already exist as part of basic planning functionality.
They are not part of the advanced planning feature set and therefore are not added as a result of selecting advanced planning.
Unattempted
Correct:
A. Time card
When advanced planning is enabled for an audit plan, Time Cards become available on the engagement.
This allows tracking of effort and time spent by audit resources against the engagement.
It helps audit managers monitor work allocation, time utilization, and overall audit execution effort.
B. Resource plan
A Resource Plan related list is added as part of advanced planning.
It enables resource allocation and planning, allowing assignment and forecasting of audit team members and their availability.
This supports better workload balancing and resource scheduling for the engagement.
C. Cost plan
Cost Plans are also introduced when advanced planning is used.
This feature allows tracking and estimating engagement-related financials, such as labor cost, travel, and other audit expenses.
It supports budgeting and cost transparency as part of audit oversight.
Incorrect:
D. Entities
Entities are not tied to advanced planning.
They may appear based on the engagement scope, but they are not introduced as an additional related list due to advanced planning.
E. Milestones
Milestones may already exist as part of basic planning functionality.
They are not part of the advanced planning feature set and therefore are not added as a result of selecting advanced planning.
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
What is the minimum role that can request a Policy Exception?
Correct
The Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC) product line requires action from many users who do not have a traditional product role, such as Compliance Reader or Risk Reader. Even the reader roles allow access to the product module, dashboard, reports, and read-only tables. To improve the internal security of the product, we created a dedicated GRC Business User role (sn_grc.business_user). This role should be assigned to users who require access only to GRC applications to perform tasks assigned to them; for example, a business user who must respond to an attestation or risk assessment. Users with the sn_grc.business_user role are provided limited access to information that is relevant to the tasks assigned to them. The sn_grc.business_user role is also used for integration scenarios between GRC and other ServiceNow products. For example, a Vulnerability Response user with the sn_grc.business_user role can request a policy exception from GRC: Policy and Compliance Management. Read more here: https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0864247
Incorrect
The Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC) product line requires action from many users who do not have a traditional product role, such as Compliance Reader or Risk Reader. Even the reader roles allow access to the product module, dashboard, reports, and read-only tables. To improve the internal security of the product, we created a dedicated GRC Business User role (sn_grc.business_user). This role should be assigned to users who require access only to GRC applications to perform tasks assigned to them; for example, a business user who must respond to an attestation or risk assessment. Users with the sn_grc.business_user role are provided limited access to information that is relevant to the tasks assigned to them. The sn_grc.business_user role is also used for integration scenarios between GRC and other ServiceNow products. For example, a Vulnerability Response user with the sn_grc.business_user role can request a policy exception from GRC: Policy and Compliance Management. Read more here: https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0864247
Unattempted
The Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC) product line requires action from many users who do not have a traditional product role, such as Compliance Reader or Risk Reader. Even the reader roles allow access to the product module, dashboard, reports, and read-only tables. To improve the internal security of the product, we created a dedicated GRC Business User role (sn_grc.business_user). This role should be assigned to users who require access only to GRC applications to perform tasks assigned to them; for example, a business user who must respond to an attestation or risk assessment. Users with the sn_grc.business_user role are provided limited access to information that is relevant to the tasks assigned to them. The sn_grc.business_user role is also used for integration scenarios between GRC and other ServiceNow products. For example, a Vulnerability Response user with the sn_grc.business_user role can request a policy exception from GRC: Policy and Compliance Management. Read more here: https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0864247
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
Which statement about a Risk Response task is correct?
Correct
Read more here about Risk Reponse:Â https://servicenow.com/docs/bundle/xanadu-governance-risk-compliance/page/product/grc-workspace-risk/concept/risk-response.html
Incorrect
Read more here about Risk Reponse:Â https://servicenow.com/docs/bundle/xanadu-governance-risk-compliance/page/product/grc-workspace-risk/concept/risk-response.html
Unattempted
Read more here about Risk Reponse:Â https://servicenow.com/docs/bundle/xanadu-governance-risk-compliance/page/product/grc-workspace-risk/concept/risk-response.html
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
Which Risk Scoring methods are available in ServiceNow? Select 2 answers.
Correct
In servicenow quantitative and qualitative are indicated as risk scoring methods, while inherent, residual and calculated as risk scoring types
Incorrect
In servicenow quantitative and qualitative are indicated as risk scoring methods, while inherent, residual and calculated as risk scoring types
Unattempted
In servicenow quantitative and qualitative are indicated as risk scoring methods, while inherent, residual and calculated as risk scoring types
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
What is the Policy acknowledge campaign lifecycle?
Correct
The Policy acknowledge campaign lifecycle typically starts with creating a new campaign, then moving to the pending acknowledgement stage where users are required to acknowledge the policy. Once all acknowledgements are received, the campaign is closed. If the campaign needs to be canceled for any reason, it can be done after the acknowledgment stage.
Incorrect
The Policy acknowledge campaign lifecycle typically starts with creating a new campaign, then moving to the pending acknowledgement stage where users are required to acknowledge the policy. Once all acknowledgements are received, the campaign is closed. If the campaign needs to be canceled for any reason, it can be done after the acknowledgment stage.
Unattempted
The Policy acknowledge campaign lifecycle typically starts with creating a new campaign, then moving to the pending acknowledgement stage where users are required to acknowledge the policy. Once all acknowledgements are received, the campaign is closed. If the campaign needs to be canceled for any reason, it can be done after the acknowledgment stage.
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
What is the correct sequence of statuses in the Policy Exception lifecycle?
1. New
2. Analyze
3. Awaiting Approval
4. Approved
5. Review
6. Closed
Correct
Correct:
B. 1 > 2 > 5 > 3 > 4 > 6
The Policy Exception lifecycle follows a structured sequence starting from creation, moving through evaluation, review, approval, and final closure.
The correct order is:
New
Analyze
Review
Awaiting Approval
Approved
Closed
This progression ensures that exceptions are analyzed first, formally reviewed, approved by the necessary authorities, and finally closed once completed.
Incorrect:
A. 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 > 5 > 6
This sequence jumps to approval steps before analysis and review, which breaks the intended lifecycle order.
An exception cannot be approved before being analyzed or reviewed.
C. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 > 5 > 6
Although this sequence looks structured, it incorrectly places “Review“ at the end after approval.
Review must happen before approval, not after.
D. 1 > 3 > 2 > 4 > 5 > 6
This flow begins with approvals before the necessary analysis stage.
The policy exception must be analyzed and reviewed before entering an approval state.
Incorrect
Correct:
B. 1 > 2 > 5 > 3 > 4 > 6
The Policy Exception lifecycle follows a structured sequence starting from creation, moving through evaluation, review, approval, and final closure.
The correct order is:
New
Analyze
Review
Awaiting Approval
Approved
Closed
This progression ensures that exceptions are analyzed first, formally reviewed, approved by the necessary authorities, and finally closed once completed.
Incorrect:
A. 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 > 5 > 6
This sequence jumps to approval steps before analysis and review, which breaks the intended lifecycle order.
An exception cannot be approved before being analyzed or reviewed.
C. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 > 5 > 6
Although this sequence looks structured, it incorrectly places “Review“ at the end after approval.
Review must happen before approval, not after.
D. 1 > 3 > 2 > 4 > 5 > 6
This flow begins with approvals before the necessary analysis stage.
The policy exception must be analyzed and reviewed before entering an approval state.
Unattempted
Correct:
B. 1 > 2 > 5 > 3 > 4 > 6
The Policy Exception lifecycle follows a structured sequence starting from creation, moving through evaluation, review, approval, and final closure.
The correct order is:
New
Analyze
Review
Awaiting Approval
Approved
Closed
This progression ensures that exceptions are analyzed first, formally reviewed, approved by the necessary authorities, and finally closed once completed.
Incorrect:
A. 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 > 5 > 6
This sequence jumps to approval steps before analysis and review, which breaks the intended lifecycle order.
An exception cannot be approved before being analyzed or reviewed.
C. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 > 5 > 6
Although this sequence looks structured, it incorrectly places “Review“ at the end after approval.
Review must happen before approval, not after.
D. 1 > 3 > 2 > 4 > 5 > 6
This flow begins with approvals before the necessary analysis stage.
The policy exception must be analyzed and reviewed before entering an approval state.
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
What eligable dependencies between Entities are displayed on the GRC: Workbench in the dependency map?
Select 2 answers.
Correct
Correct:
A. Upstream
The Workbench dependency map displays upstream relationships, which show entities that have an impact on or feed into the selected entity.
This helps users understand how failures or issues in one entity can affect other dependent entities earlier in the chain.
C. Downstream
Downstream dependencies are also displayed on the dependency map, showing entities that are impacted by the selected entity.
This provides visibility into the forward impact, enabling better risk analysis, remediation planning, and impact assessments.
Incorrect:
B. Complex
“Complex” is not a dependency type displayed on the dependency map.
Dependency views focus on directional relationships such as upstream and downstream, not abstract classifications.
D. Linear
“Linear” is not a recognized dependency type in GRC Workbench.
Dependencies are mapped based on upstream and downstream relationships, not linear flows.
Incorrect
Correct:
A. Upstream
The Workbench dependency map displays upstream relationships, which show entities that have an impact on or feed into the selected entity.
This helps users understand how failures or issues in one entity can affect other dependent entities earlier in the chain.
C. Downstream
Downstream dependencies are also displayed on the dependency map, showing entities that are impacted by the selected entity.
This provides visibility into the forward impact, enabling better risk analysis, remediation planning, and impact assessments.
Incorrect:
B. Complex
“Complex” is not a dependency type displayed on the dependency map.
Dependency views focus on directional relationships such as upstream and downstream, not abstract classifications.
D. Linear
“Linear” is not a recognized dependency type in GRC Workbench.
Dependencies are mapped based on upstream and downstream relationships, not linear flows.
Unattempted
Correct:
A. Upstream
The Workbench dependency map displays upstream relationships, which show entities that have an impact on or feed into the selected entity.
This helps users understand how failures or issues in one entity can affect other dependent entities earlier in the chain.
C. Downstream
Downstream dependencies are also displayed on the dependency map, showing entities that are impacted by the selected entity.
This provides visibility into the forward impact, enabling better risk analysis, remediation planning, and impact assessments.
Incorrect:
B. Complex
“Complex” is not a dependency type displayed on the dependency map.
Dependency views focus on directional relationships such as upstream and downstream, not abstract classifications.
D. Linear
“Linear” is not a recognized dependency type in GRC Workbench.
Dependencies are mapped based on upstream and downstream relationships, not linear flows.
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
Which tables in the GRC: Profiles scope are parent tables for GRC: Risk Management tables? Select 3 answers.
Which roles can move the control to the ‘Monitor’ state manually?
Select 2 answers.
Correct
Correct:
A. System Administrator
A System Administrator has full platform permissions, including the ability to change workflow states on GRC records.
This role can manually transition a control to the Monitor state without restriction.
It is often used for administrative overrides, configuration validation, or troubleshooting.
D. Compliance Manager
A Compliance Manager is responsible for overseeing compliance activities and managing the control lifecycle.
This role has the required permissions to manually move a control into the Monitor state after implementation is complete.
It aligns with their responsibility to ensure controls are ready for continuous monitoring and testing.
Incorrect:
B. Audit User
An Audit User focuses on auditing tasks such as reviews, tests, and findings.
This role does not manage the control lifecycle and cannot manually transition controls into the Monitor state.
C. Compliance Reader
A Compliance Reader has read-only access to compliance records.
This role cannot make lifecycle changes or update control states.
E. Risk User
A Risk User is involved in risk-related activities, not compliance control lifecycle management.
This role does not have permissions to transition controls into the Monitor state.
Incorrect
Correct:
A. System Administrator
A System Administrator has full platform permissions, including the ability to change workflow states on GRC records.
This role can manually transition a control to the Monitor state without restriction.
It is often used for administrative overrides, configuration validation, or troubleshooting.
D. Compliance Manager
A Compliance Manager is responsible for overseeing compliance activities and managing the control lifecycle.
This role has the required permissions to manually move a control into the Monitor state after implementation is complete.
It aligns with their responsibility to ensure controls are ready for continuous monitoring and testing.
Incorrect:
B. Audit User
An Audit User focuses on auditing tasks such as reviews, tests, and findings.
This role does not manage the control lifecycle and cannot manually transition controls into the Monitor state.
C. Compliance Reader
A Compliance Reader has read-only access to compliance records.
This role cannot make lifecycle changes or update control states.
E. Risk User
A Risk User is involved in risk-related activities, not compliance control lifecycle management.
This role does not have permissions to transition controls into the Monitor state.
Unattempted
Correct:
A. System Administrator
A System Administrator has full platform permissions, including the ability to change workflow states on GRC records.
This role can manually transition a control to the Monitor state without restriction.
It is often used for administrative overrides, configuration validation, or troubleshooting.
D. Compliance Manager
A Compliance Manager is responsible for overseeing compliance activities and managing the control lifecycle.
This role has the required permissions to manually move a control into the Monitor state after implementation is complete.
It aligns with their responsibility to ensure controls are ready for continuous monitoring and testing.
Incorrect:
B. Audit User
An Audit User focuses on auditing tasks such as reviews, tests, and findings.
This role does not manage the control lifecycle and cannot manually transition controls into the Monitor state.
C. Compliance Reader
A Compliance Reader has read-only access to compliance records.
This role cannot make lifecycle changes or update control states.
E. Risk User
A Risk User is involved in risk-related activities, not compliance control lifecycle management.
This role does not have permissions to transition controls into the Monitor state.
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
What table extends from Document Table?
Correct
Correct:
A. Risk Framework
The Risk Framework table extends the Document table.
It stores structured governance content related to how risks are categorized and managed within the organization.
Since frameworks serve as foundational documents, they inherit the characteristics of the Document table, such as versioning and lifecycle management.
Incorrect:
B. Risk
The Risk table does not extend the Document table.
It extends the Item table and represents an operational record used for identifying, assessing, and tracking organizational risks.
C. Risk Statement
Risk Statement does not extend the Document table.
It is used to define standardized risk language and typically relates to the Risk Framework but is not treated as a Document.
D. Risk Attestation
Risk Attestation does not extend the Document table.
It is associated with attestation activities used to validate risk-related information and is not part of the Document extension hierarchy.
Incorrect
Correct:
A. Risk Framework
The Risk Framework table extends the Document table.
It stores structured governance content related to how risks are categorized and managed within the organization.
Since frameworks serve as foundational documents, they inherit the characteristics of the Document table, such as versioning and lifecycle management.
Incorrect:
B. Risk
The Risk table does not extend the Document table.
It extends the Item table and represents an operational record used for identifying, assessing, and tracking organizational risks.
C. Risk Statement
Risk Statement does not extend the Document table.
It is used to define standardized risk language and typically relates to the Risk Framework but is not treated as a Document.
D. Risk Attestation
Risk Attestation does not extend the Document table.
It is associated with attestation activities used to validate risk-related information and is not part of the Document extension hierarchy.
Unattempted
Correct:
A. Risk Framework
The Risk Framework table extends the Document table.
It stores structured governance content related to how risks are categorized and managed within the organization.
Since frameworks serve as foundational documents, they inherit the characteristics of the Document table, such as versioning and lifecycle management.
Incorrect:
B. Risk
The Risk table does not extend the Document table.
It extends the Item table and represents an operational record used for identifying, assessing, and tracking organizational risks.
C. Risk Statement
Risk Statement does not extend the Document table.
It is used to define standardized risk language and typically relates to the Risk Framework but is not treated as a Document.
D. Risk Attestation
Risk Attestation does not extend the Document table.
It is associated with attestation activities used to validate risk-related information and is not part of the Document extension hierarchy.
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
From the attestation phase, controls are automatically transitioned to which state?
Correct
Correct:
B. Review
When an attestation phase is completed, controls automatically transition to the Review state.
This state allows compliance managers or control owners to evaluate attestation results, validate effectiveness, and decide on next actions.
Transitioning to Review ensures there is oversight before a control moves forward in its lifecycle.
Incorrect:
A. Retired
Retired is the end-of-life state for a control when it is no longer applicable.
It is not part of the automatic transition from the attestation phase.
C. Monitor
Monitor is the steady-state where controls are actively observed and tested on a recurring basis.
Controls do not move directly to Monitor after attestation; a review is required first.
D. Draft
Draft is the initial state of a control when it is being created or refined.
Controls do not revert to Draft after attestation activities.
E. Attest
Attest is not a lifecycle state for controls; it is an activity or phase.
The attestation phase is completed before controls move to the Review state, not into an “Attest“ state.
Incorrect
Correct:
B. Review
When an attestation phase is completed, controls automatically transition to the Review state.
This state allows compliance managers or control owners to evaluate attestation results, validate effectiveness, and decide on next actions.
Transitioning to Review ensures there is oversight before a control moves forward in its lifecycle.
Incorrect:
A. Retired
Retired is the end-of-life state for a control when it is no longer applicable.
It is not part of the automatic transition from the attestation phase.
C. Monitor
Monitor is the steady-state where controls are actively observed and tested on a recurring basis.
Controls do not move directly to Monitor after attestation; a review is required first.
D. Draft
Draft is the initial state of a control when it is being created or refined.
Controls do not revert to Draft after attestation activities.
E. Attest
Attest is not a lifecycle state for controls; it is an activity or phase.
The attestation phase is completed before controls move to the Review state, not into an “Attest“ state.
Unattempted
Correct:
B. Review
When an attestation phase is completed, controls automatically transition to the Review state.
This state allows compliance managers or control owners to evaluate attestation results, validate effectiveness, and decide on next actions.
Transitioning to Review ensures there is oversight before a control moves forward in its lifecycle.
Incorrect:
A. Retired
Retired is the end-of-life state for a control when it is no longer applicable.
It is not part of the automatic transition from the attestation phase.
C. Monitor
Monitor is the steady-state where controls are actively observed and tested on a recurring basis.
Controls do not move directly to Monitor after attestation; a review is required first.
D. Draft
Draft is the initial state of a control when it is being created or refined.
Controls do not revert to Draft after attestation activities.
E. Attest
Attest is not a lifecycle state for controls; it is an activity or phase.
The attestation phase is completed before controls move to the Review state, not into an “Attest“ state.
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
How is the compliance score calculated for a Control objective?
Correct
Correct:
C. The sum of weights of compliant controls divided by the sum of weights of all controls, multiplied by 100.
A Control ObjectiveÂ’s compliance score is calculated using a weighted formula.
The system evaluates all controls under the control objective, adds up the weights of only the compliant controls, and divides this by the total weight of all associated controls.
The result is then multiplied by 100 to present the score as a percentage.
This ensures that more critical controls (with higher weights) influence the score appropriately.
Incorrect:
A. The sum of weights of compliant controls
This option is incomplete because it ignores the total weight of all controls.
Without dividing by the total weight and converting to a percentage, this does not reflect a true compliance score.
B. The average of all Control compliant scores
Control Objective scores are not calculated using a simple average.
Since weighting is an important factor in compliance scoring, a straight average would produce inaccurate results and is not used in ServiceNow GRC.
D. It is calculated manually by Compliance Manager
Compliance scores are system-calculated, not manually computed.
Although a Compliance Manager may review or act on the score, they do not manually calculate it.
Incorrect
Correct:
C. The sum of weights of compliant controls divided by the sum of weights of all controls, multiplied by 100.
A Control ObjectiveÂ’s compliance score is calculated using a weighted formula.
The system evaluates all controls under the control objective, adds up the weights of only the compliant controls, and divides this by the total weight of all associated controls.
The result is then multiplied by 100 to present the score as a percentage.
This ensures that more critical controls (with higher weights) influence the score appropriately.
Incorrect:
A. The sum of weights of compliant controls
This option is incomplete because it ignores the total weight of all controls.
Without dividing by the total weight and converting to a percentage, this does not reflect a true compliance score.
B. The average of all Control compliant scores
Control Objective scores are not calculated using a simple average.
Since weighting is an important factor in compliance scoring, a straight average would produce inaccurate results and is not used in ServiceNow GRC.
D. It is calculated manually by Compliance Manager
Compliance scores are system-calculated, not manually computed.
Although a Compliance Manager may review or act on the score, they do not manually calculate it.
Unattempted
Correct:
C. The sum of weights of compliant controls divided by the sum of weights of all controls, multiplied by 100.
A Control ObjectiveÂ’s compliance score is calculated using a weighted formula.
The system evaluates all controls under the control objective, adds up the weights of only the compliant controls, and divides this by the total weight of all associated controls.
The result is then multiplied by 100 to present the score as a percentage.
This ensures that more critical controls (with higher weights) influence the score appropriately.
Incorrect:
A. The sum of weights of compliant controls
This option is incomplete because it ignores the total weight of all controls.
Without dividing by the total weight and converting to a percentage, this does not reflect a true compliance score.
B. The average of all Control compliant scores
Control Objective scores are not calculated using a simple average.
Since weighting is an important factor in compliance scoring, a straight average would produce inaccurate results and is not used in ServiceNow GRC.
D. It is calculated manually by Compliance Manager
Compliance scores are system-calculated, not manually computed.
Although a Compliance Manager may review or act on the score, they do not manually calculate it.
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
What is the minimum role required to create a risk assessment methodology (RAM)?
When the policy moves to the Published state the system automatically generates a Knowledge Base article. The policy becomes a mandate for all users to follow its guidelines and requirements, which is through the controls that are mapped to the policy. In this state, the policy can also be sent Back to Review, Retired, or Deleted.
Incorrect
When the policy moves to the Published state the system automatically generates a Knowledge Base article. The policy becomes a mandate for all users to follow its guidelines and requirements, which is through the controls that are mapped to the policy. In this state, the policy can also be sent Back to Review, Retired, or Deleted.
Unattempted
When the policy moves to the Published state the system automatically generates a Knowledge Base article. The policy becomes a mandate for all users to follow its guidelines and requirements, which is through the controls that are mapped to the policy. In this state, the policy can also be sent Back to Review, Retired, or Deleted.
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
Customer wants to restrict access to compliance and risk information on the instance. What can you implement? Select 2 anwers.
Correct
Read the article:Â https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0859355
Incorrect
Read the article:Â https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0859355
Unattempted
Read the article:Â https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0859355
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
Which of the following records does not have a lifecycle?
Correct
Control objective this follow policy life cycle, it has not Active & Inactive status
Incorrect
Control objective this follow policy life cycle, it has not Active & Inactive status
Unattempted
Control objective this follow policy life cycle, it has not Active & Inactive status
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
What options are available when configuring the assessment context for a risk assessment methodology RAM? Select 2 answers.
Correct
Risk Statement allows you to configure the risk assessment methodology to be applied to individual risk statements, focusing on assessing risks at a granular level. Project Risk allows you to configure the risk assessment methodology to be applied to risks associated with specific projects or initiatives.
Incorrect
Risk Statement allows you to configure the risk assessment methodology to be applied to individual risk statements, focusing on assessing risks at a granular level. Project Risk allows you to configure the risk assessment methodology to be applied to risks associated with specific projects or initiatives.
Unattempted
Risk Statement allows you to configure the risk assessment methodology to be applied to individual risk statements, focusing on assessing risks at a granular level. Project Risk allows you to configure the risk assessment methodology to be applied to risks associated with specific projects or initiatives.
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
Who should perform Control Attestation?
Correct
Correct:
Attestation Responders
In the context of ServiceNow CIS – Risk and Compliance (R&C / GRC / IRM), the individual who should perform the actual task of completing a Control Attestation (certifying that a control is operating effectively) is the Attestation Responder.
This role is specifically designed to receive and act upon the attestation requests generated in the system. They are typically the people who are closest to the control‘s operation, such as a process owner or a team member responsible for the control‘s execution, and can provide accurate evidence and confirmation of its operational status.
Incorrect:
Risk Managers
Risk Managers typically focus on identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks. While they are central to the overall GRC process, their primary role is not to perform the hands-on Control Attestation. They rely on the results of attestations and testing to inform their risk management decisions.
Control Admins
The Control Admin role in ServiceNow is generally responsible for the administration and configuration of the controls within the system. This includes creating controls, assigning owners, and managing the attestation process itself (e.g., configuring attestation schedules or templates). They manage how the attestation is done, but they usually don‘t perform the attestation task itself.
Control Owner
The Control Owner is the individual accountable for the design and effective operation of the control. While they have ultimate responsibility, they often delegate the actual task of completing the attestation request (providing the evidence and answering questions) to a specific Attestation Responder who is better positioned to gather the current, necessary details. The Control Owner reviews and is responsible for the overall outcome, but the person who performs the attestation is the Responder.
Incorrect
Correct:
Attestation Responders
In the context of ServiceNow CIS – Risk and Compliance (R&C / GRC / IRM), the individual who should perform the actual task of completing a Control Attestation (certifying that a control is operating effectively) is the Attestation Responder.
This role is specifically designed to receive and act upon the attestation requests generated in the system. They are typically the people who are closest to the control‘s operation, such as a process owner or a team member responsible for the control‘s execution, and can provide accurate evidence and confirmation of its operational status.
Incorrect:
Risk Managers
Risk Managers typically focus on identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks. While they are central to the overall GRC process, their primary role is not to perform the hands-on Control Attestation. They rely on the results of attestations and testing to inform their risk management decisions.
Control Admins
The Control Admin role in ServiceNow is generally responsible for the administration and configuration of the controls within the system. This includes creating controls, assigning owners, and managing the attestation process itself (e.g., configuring attestation schedules or templates). They manage how the attestation is done, but they usually don‘t perform the attestation task itself.
Control Owner
The Control Owner is the individual accountable for the design and effective operation of the control. While they have ultimate responsibility, they often delegate the actual task of completing the attestation request (providing the evidence and answering questions) to a specific Attestation Responder who is better positioned to gather the current, necessary details. The Control Owner reviews and is responsible for the overall outcome, but the person who performs the attestation is the Responder.
Unattempted
Correct:
Attestation Responders
In the context of ServiceNow CIS – Risk and Compliance (R&C / GRC / IRM), the individual who should perform the actual task of completing a Control Attestation (certifying that a control is operating effectively) is the Attestation Responder.
This role is specifically designed to receive and act upon the attestation requests generated in the system. They are typically the people who are closest to the control‘s operation, such as a process owner or a team member responsible for the control‘s execution, and can provide accurate evidence and confirmation of its operational status.
Incorrect:
Risk Managers
Risk Managers typically focus on identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks. While they are central to the overall GRC process, their primary role is not to perform the hands-on Control Attestation. They rely on the results of attestations and testing to inform their risk management decisions.
Control Admins
The Control Admin role in ServiceNow is generally responsible for the administration and configuration of the controls within the system. This includes creating controls, assigning owners, and managing the attestation process itself (e.g., configuring attestation schedules or templates). They manage how the attestation is done, but they usually don‘t perform the attestation task itself.
Control Owner
The Control Owner is the individual accountable for the design and effective operation of the control. While they have ultimate responsibility, they often delegate the actual task of completing the attestation request (providing the evidence and answering questions) to a specific Attestation Responder who is better positioned to gather the current, necessary details. The Control Owner reviews and is responsible for the overall outcome, but the person who performs the attestation is the Responder.
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
Which of the following extends from Content Table? Select 2 answers.
Correct
Citation [sn_compliance_citation] Extends the Content [sn_grc_content] table and stores all citations. Control objective [sn_compliance_policy_statement] Extends the Content [sn_grc_content] table and stores all control objectives
Incorrect
Citation [sn_compliance_citation] Extends the Content [sn_grc_content] table and stores all citations. Control objective [sn_compliance_policy_statement] Extends the Content [sn_grc_content] table and stores all control objectives
Unattempted
Citation [sn_compliance_citation] Extends the Content [sn_grc_content] table and stores all citations. Control objective [sn_compliance_policy_statement] Extends the Content [sn_grc_content] table and stores all control objectives
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
Who should be directly involved in GRC implementations?
Select 3 answers.
Correct
Â
Correct:
Risk and compliance experts
These are the domain specialists. They provide the necessary knowledge on regulatory requirements, internal policies, risk frameworks, and control objectives. Their expertise is crucial for configuring the GRC applications to accurately reflect the organization‘s governance, risk, and compliance landscape. They define what needs to be managed.
Board of directors
The Board of Directors (or an equivalent Executive Leadership/Steering Committee) must be directly involved to provide executive sponsorship and strategic direction. Their involvement is essential to ensure the GRC implementation is aligned with the overall business strategy, receives the necessary funding/resources, and fosters a culture of risk-aware decision-making across the enterprise. Governance starts at the top.
CMDB process owner
ServiceNow‘s GRC application often leverages data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB), which stores information about the organization‘s IT assets and services (Entities). The CMDB process owner ensures the data used for risk and compliance assessments (like linking risks to servers or applications) is accurate, reliable, and properly integrated into the GRC solution. This integration is critical for Continuous Monitoring.
Incorrect:
HR analysts
While HR data may be used by GRC (e.g., for aligning risk ownership or access rights), HR analysts are typically not part of the core implementation team. Their role is supportive and peripheral, not directly involved in the technical configuration or the definition of the risk/compliance framework.
ServiceNow platform experts
This term is generally too broad. While a ServiceNow developer team or Solution Architect is absolutely necessary for the technical implementation, the exam content typically highlights the business-facing roles and high-level sponsors. The platform experts are the implementers of the solution, but they are driven by the requirements set by the Risk, Compliance, and Executive stakeholders. In this context, the more specific, domain-focused roles (A, C, and E) are the intended answers.
Chief Executive
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is the ultimate authority, but they typically delegate the direct involvement, strategic oversight, and day-to-day governance to the Board of Directors and other senior executives (like the Chief Risk Officer or Chief Compliance Officer). While the CEO is the ultimate sponsor, the Board is the body most directly involved in GRC strategy and oversight as a stakeholder.
Incorrect
Â
Correct:
Risk and compliance experts
These are the domain specialists. They provide the necessary knowledge on regulatory requirements, internal policies, risk frameworks, and control objectives. Their expertise is crucial for configuring the GRC applications to accurately reflect the organization‘s governance, risk, and compliance landscape. They define what needs to be managed.
Board of directors
The Board of Directors (or an equivalent Executive Leadership/Steering Committee) must be directly involved to provide executive sponsorship and strategic direction. Their involvement is essential to ensure the GRC implementation is aligned with the overall business strategy, receives the necessary funding/resources, and fosters a culture of risk-aware decision-making across the enterprise. Governance starts at the top.
CMDB process owner
ServiceNow‘s GRC application often leverages data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB), which stores information about the organization‘s IT assets and services (Entities). The CMDB process owner ensures the data used for risk and compliance assessments (like linking risks to servers or applications) is accurate, reliable, and properly integrated into the GRC solution. This integration is critical for Continuous Monitoring.
Incorrect:
HR analysts
While HR data may be used by GRC (e.g., for aligning risk ownership or access rights), HR analysts are typically not part of the core implementation team. Their role is supportive and peripheral, not directly involved in the technical configuration or the definition of the risk/compliance framework.
ServiceNow platform experts
This term is generally too broad. While a ServiceNow developer team or Solution Architect is absolutely necessary for the technical implementation, the exam content typically highlights the business-facing roles and high-level sponsors. The platform experts are the implementers of the solution, but they are driven by the requirements set by the Risk, Compliance, and Executive stakeholders. In this context, the more specific, domain-focused roles (A, C, and E) are the intended answers.
Chief Executive
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is the ultimate authority, but they typically delegate the direct involvement, strategic oversight, and day-to-day governance to the Board of Directors and other senior executives (like the Chief Risk Officer or Chief Compliance Officer). While the CEO is the ultimate sponsor, the Board is the body most directly involved in GRC strategy and oversight as a stakeholder.
Unattempted
Â
Correct:
Risk and compliance experts
These are the domain specialists. They provide the necessary knowledge on regulatory requirements, internal policies, risk frameworks, and control objectives. Their expertise is crucial for configuring the GRC applications to accurately reflect the organization‘s governance, risk, and compliance landscape. They define what needs to be managed.
Board of directors
The Board of Directors (or an equivalent Executive Leadership/Steering Committee) must be directly involved to provide executive sponsorship and strategic direction. Their involvement is essential to ensure the GRC implementation is aligned with the overall business strategy, receives the necessary funding/resources, and fosters a culture of risk-aware decision-making across the enterprise. Governance starts at the top.
CMDB process owner
ServiceNow‘s GRC application often leverages data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB), which stores information about the organization‘s IT assets and services (Entities). The CMDB process owner ensures the data used for risk and compliance assessments (like linking risks to servers or applications) is accurate, reliable, and properly integrated into the GRC solution. This integration is critical for Continuous Monitoring.
Incorrect:
HR analysts
While HR data may be used by GRC (e.g., for aligning risk ownership or access rights), HR analysts are typically not part of the core implementation team. Their role is supportive and peripheral, not directly involved in the technical configuration or the definition of the risk/compliance framework.
ServiceNow platform experts
This term is generally too broad. While a ServiceNow developer team or Solution Architect is absolutely necessary for the technical implementation, the exam content typically highlights the business-facing roles and high-level sponsors. The platform experts are the implementers of the solution, but they are driven by the requirements set by the Risk, Compliance, and Executive stakeholders. In this context, the more specific, domain-focused roles (A, C, and E) are the intended answers.
Chief Executive
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is the ultimate authority, but they typically delegate the direct involvement, strategic oversight, and day-to-day governance to the Board of Directors and other senior executives (like the Chief Risk Officer or Chief Compliance Officer). While the CEO is the ultimate sponsor, the Board is the body most directly involved in GRC strategy and oversight as a stakeholder.
Question 37 of 60
37. Question
What 2 roles should an Audit Manager have in order to perform the audit process and other GRC functionalities related to auditing?
Correct
Correct:
sn_grc.manager
This is one of the two core roles required for the Audit Manager. The sn_grc.manager role grants broad access to core Governance, Risk, and Compliance features within the ServiceNow platform. This role allows the Audit Manager to view, manage, and report on the entities, policies, and risks that form the basis of the audit process. It is essential for an integrated view across the GRC landscape, which is fundamental to the IRM approach.
sn_audit.user
This is the primary role specific to the Audit Management application. It grants the necessary permissions for the user to perform the day-to-day functions of an Audit Manager, such as:
Creating and managing audit engagements.
Defining the audit scope and tasks.
Managing resources and schedules.
Tracking issues and remediation efforts resulting from the audit.
The combination of sn_grc.manager and sn_audit.user provides the full functional access needed to manage and execute audits within the GRC framework.
Incorrect:
sn_grc.reader
This role only grants read-only access to GRC data. While the Audit Manager needs to read data, this role would prevent them from creating, updating, or managing audit engagements and other tasks, making it insufficient for performing the full audit process.
sn_grc.developer
This is not a standard, out-of-the-box GRC role. Development tasks (like customizing workflows or scripts) are typically handled by a general platform administrator or developer, not by a functional role like the Audit Manager.
sn_grc.user
The sn_grc.user role grants basic operational access, such as completing attestations or viewing assigned tasks. This is typically assigned to general employees or control/risk owners. It does not have the elevated permissions or management capabilities required to oversee and manage the entire GRC program or the full Audit Management lifecycle, which the Audit Manager requires.
Incorrect
Correct:
sn_grc.manager
This is one of the two core roles required for the Audit Manager. The sn_grc.manager role grants broad access to core Governance, Risk, and Compliance features within the ServiceNow platform. This role allows the Audit Manager to view, manage, and report on the entities, policies, and risks that form the basis of the audit process. It is essential for an integrated view across the GRC landscape, which is fundamental to the IRM approach.
sn_audit.user
This is the primary role specific to the Audit Management application. It grants the necessary permissions for the user to perform the day-to-day functions of an Audit Manager, such as:
Creating and managing audit engagements.
Defining the audit scope and tasks.
Managing resources and schedules.
Tracking issues and remediation efforts resulting from the audit.
The combination of sn_grc.manager and sn_audit.user provides the full functional access needed to manage and execute audits within the GRC framework.
Incorrect:
sn_grc.reader
This role only grants read-only access to GRC data. While the Audit Manager needs to read data, this role would prevent them from creating, updating, or managing audit engagements and other tasks, making it insufficient for performing the full audit process.
sn_grc.developer
This is not a standard, out-of-the-box GRC role. Development tasks (like customizing workflows or scripts) are typically handled by a general platform administrator or developer, not by a functional role like the Audit Manager.
sn_grc.user
The sn_grc.user role grants basic operational access, such as completing attestations or viewing assigned tasks. This is typically assigned to general employees or control/risk owners. It does not have the elevated permissions or management capabilities required to oversee and manage the entire GRC program or the full Audit Management lifecycle, which the Audit Manager requires.
Unattempted
Correct:
sn_grc.manager
This is one of the two core roles required for the Audit Manager. The sn_grc.manager role grants broad access to core Governance, Risk, and Compliance features within the ServiceNow platform. This role allows the Audit Manager to view, manage, and report on the entities, policies, and risks that form the basis of the audit process. It is essential for an integrated view across the GRC landscape, which is fundamental to the IRM approach.
sn_audit.user
This is the primary role specific to the Audit Management application. It grants the necessary permissions for the user to perform the day-to-day functions of an Audit Manager, such as:
Creating and managing audit engagements.
Defining the audit scope and tasks.
Managing resources and schedules.
Tracking issues and remediation efforts resulting from the audit.
The combination of sn_grc.manager and sn_audit.user provides the full functional access needed to manage and execute audits within the GRC framework.
Incorrect:
sn_grc.reader
This role only grants read-only access to GRC data. While the Audit Manager needs to read data, this role would prevent them from creating, updating, or managing audit engagements and other tasks, making it insufficient for performing the full audit process.
sn_grc.developer
This is not a standard, out-of-the-box GRC role. Development tasks (like customizing workflows or scripts) are typically handled by a general platform administrator or developer, not by a functional role like the Audit Manager.
sn_grc.user
The sn_grc.user role grants basic operational access, such as completing attestations or viewing assigned tasks. This is typically assigned to general employees or control/risk owners. It does not have the elevated permissions or management capabilities required to oversee and manage the entire GRC program or the full Audit Management lifecycle, which the Audit Manager requires.
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
Which parent is the Citation table a child table of?
Correct
Correct:
• Content
? The Citation table is a child table of the Content table (sn_grc_content).
? In the ServiceNow GRC/IRM data model, the Content table serves as a central hub for various GRC components, including Authority Documents, Citations, and Policies. This parent-child relationship signifies that a Citation is considered a type of GRC content.
Incorrect:
Incorrect:
• Authority Document
? The Citation table is directly related to the Authority Document table (sn_grc_document) but is not a child of it. An Authority Document contains multiple Citations, establishing a one-to-many relationship, but the relationship in the database hierarchy is Citation $\rightarrow$ Content and Authority Document $\rightarrow$ Content.
• Item
? Item is a generic term and is not the correct specific parent table. The core GRC tables, like Citation, do not inherit directly from a table named “Item.“
• Document
? While the Authority Document table (sn_grc_document) is a critical GRC table (and a child of Content), the Citation table is a sibling of the Authority Document table under the common parent of Content, not a child of a generic “Document“ table. The correct parent is the more encompassing Content table.
Incorrect
Correct:
• Content
? The Citation table is a child table of the Content table (sn_grc_content).
? In the ServiceNow GRC/IRM data model, the Content table serves as a central hub for various GRC components, including Authority Documents, Citations, and Policies. This parent-child relationship signifies that a Citation is considered a type of GRC content.
Incorrect:
Incorrect:
• Authority Document
? The Citation table is directly related to the Authority Document table (sn_grc_document) but is not a child of it. An Authority Document contains multiple Citations, establishing a one-to-many relationship, but the relationship in the database hierarchy is Citation $\rightarrow$ Content and Authority Document $\rightarrow$ Content.
• Item
? Item is a generic term and is not the correct specific parent table. The core GRC tables, like Citation, do not inherit directly from a table named “Item.“
• Document
? While the Authority Document table (sn_grc_document) is a critical GRC table (and a child of Content), the Citation table is a sibling of the Authority Document table under the common parent of Content, not a child of a generic “Document“ table. The correct parent is the more encompassing Content table.
Unattempted
Correct:
• Content
? The Citation table is a child table of the Content table (sn_grc_content).
? In the ServiceNow GRC/IRM data model, the Content table serves as a central hub for various GRC components, including Authority Documents, Citations, and Policies. This parent-child relationship signifies that a Citation is considered a type of GRC content.
Incorrect:
Incorrect:
• Authority Document
? The Citation table is directly related to the Authority Document table (sn_grc_document) but is not a child of it. An Authority Document contains multiple Citations, establishing a one-to-many relationship, but the relationship in the database hierarchy is Citation $\rightarrow$ Content and Authority Document $\rightarrow$ Content.
• Item
? Item is a generic term and is not the correct specific parent table. The core GRC tables, like Citation, do not inherit directly from a table named “Item.“
• Document
? While the Authority Document table (sn_grc_document) is a critical GRC table (and a child of Content), the Citation table is a sibling of the Authority Document table under the common parent of Content, not a child of a generic “Document“ table. The correct parent is the more encompassing Content table.
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
The user can report an exception from the Service Portal. What gives such an opportunity?
Correct
A record producer is a specific type of catalog item that allows end users to create task-based records, such as incident records, from the service catalog. Use record producers to provide a better end-user experience instead of using the regular task-based form for creating records.
Incorrect
A record producer is a specific type of catalog item that allows end users to create task-based records, such as incident records, from the service catalog. Use record producers to provide a better end-user experience instead of using the regular task-based form for creating records.
Unattempted
A record producer is a specific type of catalog item that allows end users to create task-based records, such as incident records, from the service catalog. Use record producers to provide a better end-user experience instead of using the regular task-based form for creating records.
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
What occurs when you associate an Entity Type with a Control Objective?
Correct
Controls are automatically generated when you associate a policy with an entity type or an entity type with a control objective. A control is created for each entity listed in the entity type for the control objective. Controls can also be manually created.
Incorrect
Controls are automatically generated when you associate a policy with an entity type or an entity type with a control objective. A control is created for each entity listed in the entity type for the control objective. Controls can also be manually created.
Unattempted
Controls are automatically generated when you associate a policy with an entity type or an entity type with a control objective. A control is created for each entity listed in the entity type for the control objective. Controls can also be manually created.
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
Which collection of tables extend the Document table?
Correct
Correct:
A. Risk Framework, Policy, Authority, Document
These tables extend the Document table within ServiceNow GRC.
They represent governance and compliance documents such as frameworks, organizational policies, and external regulatory or authority documents.
By extending the Document table, they inherit common document attributes such as lifecycle state, versioning, ownership, and related records.
This extension supports a unified structure for managing compliance documentation in the platform.
Incorrect:
B. Risk Statement, Control Objective, Citation
These tables do not extend the Document table.
Risk Statement is used for defining risks but is part of the risk structure and not the document hierarchy.
Control Objective represents required outcomes from authority documents, but it has its own structure and does not extend the Document table.
Citation is used for mapping and referencing but does not extend the Document table.
C. Risk, Control
These tables belong to the core risk and control management process but are not part of the document model.
Risk is focused on risk identification, assessment, and scoring.
Control is related to mitigation activities and continuous monitoring.
Neither of these inherits from the Document table, as they serve operational risk and control functions rather than document governance.
D. Control Objective, Citation
These tables support compliance mapping and requirements, but they are not document-based tables.
Control Objective outlines compliance expectations derived from authoritative sources.
Citation is used to connect controls and policies with authority documents.
Both play key roles within compliance, but they do not extend the Document table.
Incorrect
Correct:
A. Risk Framework, Policy, Authority, Document
These tables extend the Document table within ServiceNow GRC.
They represent governance and compliance documents such as frameworks, organizational policies, and external regulatory or authority documents.
By extending the Document table, they inherit common document attributes such as lifecycle state, versioning, ownership, and related records.
This extension supports a unified structure for managing compliance documentation in the platform.
Incorrect:
B. Risk Statement, Control Objective, Citation
These tables do not extend the Document table.
Risk Statement is used for defining risks but is part of the risk structure and not the document hierarchy.
Control Objective represents required outcomes from authority documents, but it has its own structure and does not extend the Document table.
Citation is used for mapping and referencing but does not extend the Document table.
C. Risk, Control
These tables belong to the core risk and control management process but are not part of the document model.
Risk is focused on risk identification, assessment, and scoring.
Control is related to mitigation activities and continuous monitoring.
Neither of these inherits from the Document table, as they serve operational risk and control functions rather than document governance.
D. Control Objective, Citation
These tables support compliance mapping and requirements, but they are not document-based tables.
Control Objective outlines compliance expectations derived from authoritative sources.
Citation is used to connect controls and policies with authority documents.
Both play key roles within compliance, but they do not extend the Document table.
Unattempted
Correct:
A. Risk Framework, Policy, Authority, Document
These tables extend the Document table within ServiceNow GRC.
They represent governance and compliance documents such as frameworks, organizational policies, and external regulatory or authority documents.
By extending the Document table, they inherit common document attributes such as lifecycle state, versioning, ownership, and related records.
This extension supports a unified structure for managing compliance documentation in the platform.
Incorrect:
B. Risk Statement, Control Objective, Citation
These tables do not extend the Document table.
Risk Statement is used for defining risks but is part of the risk structure and not the document hierarchy.
Control Objective represents required outcomes from authority documents, but it has its own structure and does not extend the Document table.
Citation is used for mapping and referencing but does not extend the Document table.
C. Risk, Control
These tables belong to the core risk and control management process but are not part of the document model.
Risk is focused on risk identification, assessment, and scoring.
Control is related to mitigation activities and continuous monitoring.
Neither of these inherits from the Document table, as they serve operational risk and control functions rather than document governance.
D. Control Objective, Citation
These tables support compliance mapping and requirements, but they are not document-based tables.
Control Objective outlines compliance expectations derived from authoritative sources.
Citation is used to connect controls and policies with authority documents.
Both play key roles within compliance, but they do not extend the Document table.
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
An Observation can also be commonly known as what during an audit?
Correct
Audit observations are the results of an audit. As an important part of the audit report, audit observations represent the results of reviews, analysis, interviews, and discussions.
Incorrect
Audit observations are the results of an audit. As an important part of the audit report, audit observations represent the results of reviews, analysis, interviews, and discussions.
Unattempted
Audit observations are the results of an audit. As an important part of the audit report, audit observations represent the results of reviews, analysis, interviews, and discussions.
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
Which GRC tables serve as primary parent tables for the GRC applications? Select 3 answers.
Correct
Task, asset and document are not GRCÂ tables.
Incorrect
Task, asset and document are not GRCÂ tables.
Unattempted
Task, asset and document are not GRCÂ tables.
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
Which tables extend from the Task table? Select 2 answers.
ServiceNow provides various GRC roles aligned to governance, risk, compliance, and audit activities, but there is no out-of-the-box role named Risk Developer.
Development or configuration work for GRC is typically handled by roles such as admin or custom roles created by organizations, not a predefined “Risk Developer” role.
Incorrect:
B. Risk Manager
This is a valid GRC role provided by ServiceNow.
It is designed for individuals responsible for managing risks, overseeing risk processes, and tracking remediation activities.
The role grants capabilities such as reviewing risks, approving assessments, and monitoring overall risk posture.
C. Risk Reader
This is a legitimate GRC role.
It provides read-only access to risk-related records and dashboards.
It is typically used by stakeholders or business users who need visibility into risks without performing updates.
D. Risk User
This role is part of the standard GRC role set.
It grants permissions to perform general risk-related tasks such as submitting risks, completing assigned activities, and participating in risk assessments.
It is commonly assigned to operational users involved in day-to-day risk handling.
Incorrect
Correct:
A. Risk Developer
This role does not exist in ServiceNow GRC.
ServiceNow provides various GRC roles aligned to governance, risk, compliance, and audit activities, but there is no out-of-the-box role named Risk Developer.
Development or configuration work for GRC is typically handled by roles such as admin or custom roles created by organizations, not a predefined “Risk Developer” role.
Incorrect:
B. Risk Manager
This is a valid GRC role provided by ServiceNow.
It is designed for individuals responsible for managing risks, overseeing risk processes, and tracking remediation activities.
The role grants capabilities such as reviewing risks, approving assessments, and monitoring overall risk posture.
C. Risk Reader
This is a legitimate GRC role.
It provides read-only access to risk-related records and dashboards.
It is typically used by stakeholders or business users who need visibility into risks without performing updates.
D. Risk User
This role is part of the standard GRC role set.
It grants permissions to perform general risk-related tasks such as submitting risks, completing assigned activities, and participating in risk assessments.
It is commonly assigned to operational users involved in day-to-day risk handling.
Unattempted
Correct:
A. Risk Developer
This role does not exist in ServiceNow GRC.
ServiceNow provides various GRC roles aligned to governance, risk, compliance, and audit activities, but there is no out-of-the-box role named Risk Developer.
Development or configuration work for GRC is typically handled by roles such as admin or custom roles created by organizations, not a predefined “Risk Developer” role.
Incorrect:
B. Risk Manager
This is a valid GRC role provided by ServiceNow.
It is designed for individuals responsible for managing risks, overseeing risk processes, and tracking remediation activities.
The role grants capabilities such as reviewing risks, approving assessments, and monitoring overall risk posture.
C. Risk Reader
This is a legitimate GRC role.
It provides read-only access to risk-related records and dashboards.
It is typically used by stakeholders or business users who need visibility into risks without performing updates.
D. Risk User
This role is part of the standard GRC role set.
It grants permissions to perform general risk-related tasks such as submitting risks, completing assigned activities, and participating in risk assessments.
It is commonly assigned to operational users involved in day-to-day risk handling.
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
What rules can be defined for Policy Exceptions? Select 2 answers.
Correct
The verification rule is used to verify the accuracy and completeness of a policy exception request prior to sending it out for approvals. You can define multiple levels of approvers for an application. Approval rules define the criteria (risk rating, policy or control objective) that is used for sending approval requests for an exception. Rules can be configured for an application and you can identify multiple levels of approvers, as needed.
Incorrect
The verification rule is used to verify the accuracy and completeness of a policy exception request prior to sending it out for approvals. You can define multiple levels of approvers for an application. Approval rules define the criteria (risk rating, policy or control objective) that is used for sending approval requests for an exception. Rules can be configured for an application and you can identify multiple levels of approvers, as needed.
Unattempted
The verification rule is used to verify the accuracy and completeness of a policy exception request prior to sending it out for approvals. You can define multiple levels of approvers for an application. Approval rules define the criteria (risk rating, policy or control objective) that is used for sending approval requests for an exception. Rules can be configured for an application and you can identify multiple levels of approvers, as needed.
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
What new related list was added to the risk statement and entity records after migrating to advanced risk assessment?
Correct
When you migrate to advanced risk assessment, individual risk score values do not roll up to give you the risk score. Instead, the values from advanced risk assessment are considered. For example, for an entity, in the Entity form, the Risk Rollup and Tolerance section is not displayed. The same applies to any risk statement. Instead, a related list called Aggregated Risk is displayed.
Incorrect
When you migrate to advanced risk assessment, individual risk score values do not roll up to give you the risk score. Instead, the values from advanced risk assessment are considered. For example, for an entity, in the Entity form, the Risk Rollup and Tolerance section is not displayed. The same applies to any risk statement. Instead, a related list called Aggregated Risk is displayed.
Unattempted
When you migrate to advanced risk assessment, individual risk score values do not roll up to give you the risk score. Instead, the values from advanced risk assessment are considered. For example, for an entity, in the Entity form, the Risk Rollup and Tolerance section is not displayed. The same applies to any risk statement. Instead, a related list called Aggregated Risk is displayed.
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
Which GRC application would you utilize to oversee internal or external consultancy processes that aim to demonstrate control effectiveness?
Correct
Controls are specific implementations of a policy statement. Retired controls do not appear in the list. Controls inherit the Type, Category, and Classification from the policy statement. Controls are generated from the profile types that are assigned to a policy statement. Continuous monitoring involves activities related to identifying and creating key risk and controls indicators. Supporting information can be collected for those indicators through automatic data collection or manual tasks. Indicator results are then used to create issues for controls, update risk scores, and provide supporting information for audit activities and control testing. These are part of Policy and Compliance Management
Incorrect
Controls are specific implementations of a policy statement. Retired controls do not appear in the list. Controls inherit the Type, Category, and Classification from the policy statement. Controls are generated from the profile types that are assigned to a policy statement. Continuous monitoring involves activities related to identifying and creating key risk and controls indicators. Supporting information can be collected for those indicators through automatic data collection or manual tasks. Indicator results are then used to create issues for controls, update risk scores, and provide supporting information for audit activities and control testing. These are part of Policy and Compliance Management
Unattempted
Controls are specific implementations of a policy statement. Retired controls do not appear in the list. Controls inherit the Type, Category, and Classification from the policy statement. Controls are generated from the profile types that are assigned to a policy statement. Continuous monitoring involves activities related to identifying and creating key risk and controls indicators. Supporting information can be collected for those indicators through automatic data collection or manual tasks. Indicator results are then used to create issues for controls, update risk scores, and provide supporting information for audit activities and control testing. These are part of Policy and Compliance Management
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
When creating a new assessment scheduler record for initiating advanced risk assessments, which options should you choose? Select 2 answers.
Entity class is not assigned to the Control Objective or Policies (the Entity type is) Entity classes are used to add conceptual information about an entity. Entity classes represent a collection of entities that have the same attributes such as Department, Business Unit, or Business Service. You can gather data about an entity based on its entity class.
Incorrect
Entity class is not assigned to the Control Objective or Policies (the Entity type is) Entity classes are used to add conceptual information about an entity. Entity classes represent a collection of entities that have the same attributes such as Department, Business Unit, or Business Service. You can gather data about an entity based on its entity class.
Unattempted
Entity class is not assigned to the Control Objective or Policies (the Entity type is) Entity classes are used to add conceptual information about an entity. Entity classes represent a collection of entities that have the same attributes such as Department, Business Unit, or Business Service. You can gather data about an entity based on its entity class.
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
The compliance score calculation may be modified by changing which controls factors?
Correct
Read more here about calculation of compliance score:Â https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0716583
Incorrect
Read more here about calculation of compliance score:Â https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0716583
Unattempted
Read more here about calculation of compliance score:Â https://support.servicenow.com/kb?id=kb_article_view&sysparm_article=KB0716583
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
What functionality would you use to monitor the progress of specific tasks?
Correct
Correct:
B. SLAs
SLAs are used in GRC to monitor the progress and timeliness of specific tasks.
They help track whether a task is progressing within the expected timeframe by measuring response and resolution times.
SLAs can trigger escalation, send alerts, or change task states when breached, making them ideal for monitoring task progress.
Incorrect:
A. Notifications
Notifications are used for informing users about events, updates, or changes in record status.
They do not monitor task progress; they only communicate updates through email or other channels.
C. Flow Designer
Flow Designer is a tool used to automate processes and actions.
It focuses on orchestrating tasks and system actions, not on tracking task progress or performance.
D. Workflow Editor
Workflow Editor is used to design and automate record lifecycle processes.
It defines how tasks move through different states, but it does not provide SLA-based task progress monitoring.
Incorrect
Correct:
B. SLAs
SLAs are used in GRC to monitor the progress and timeliness of specific tasks.
They help track whether a task is progressing within the expected timeframe by measuring response and resolution times.
SLAs can trigger escalation, send alerts, or change task states when breached, making them ideal for monitoring task progress.
Incorrect:
A. Notifications
Notifications are used for informing users about events, updates, or changes in record status.
They do not monitor task progress; they only communicate updates through email or other channels.
C. Flow Designer
Flow Designer is a tool used to automate processes and actions.
It focuses on orchestrating tasks and system actions, not on tracking task progress or performance.
D. Workflow Editor
Workflow Editor is used to design and automate record lifecycle processes.
It defines how tasks move through different states, but it does not provide SLA-based task progress monitoring.
Unattempted
Correct:
B. SLAs
SLAs are used in GRC to monitor the progress and timeliness of specific tasks.
They help track whether a task is progressing within the expected timeframe by measuring response and resolution times.
SLAs can trigger escalation, send alerts, or change task states when breached, making them ideal for monitoring task progress.
Incorrect:
A. Notifications
Notifications are used for informing users about events, updates, or changes in record status.
They do not monitor task progress; they only communicate updates through email or other channels.
C. Flow Designer
Flow Designer is a tool used to automate processes and actions.
It focuses on orchestrating tasks and system actions, not on tracking task progress or performance.
D. Workflow Editor
Workflow Editor is used to design and automate record lifecycle processes.
It defines how tasks move through different states, but it does not provide SLA-based task progress monitoring.
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
What will change when you activate the Confidental records feature?
You‘ve created an Entity Filter. What to do to quickly create Entities based on it?
Correct
Correct:
A. Click UI Action: ‘Update Entities from Filter‘
When an Entity Filter is created, the fastest way to generate the corresponding Entities is by using the Update Entities from Filter UI action.
This action immediately evaluates the filter conditions and creates or updates Entities based on the matching records.
It is designed for on-demand generation, especially useful during configuration or testing.
Incorrect:
B. Nothing, Entities should be created automatically
Entities are not created automatically just by defining a filter.
The platform requires an explicit action such as running the UI action or a scheduled job to generate or update Entity records.
C. Execute the scheduled job: ‘GRC: Profile Generation‘
This job is used for generating Profiles, not Entities.
It processes profile types and creates profiles from indicators, controls, risks, and other profile sources, making it unrelated to entity generation.
D. Execute the fix script: ‘Create/Update Entities‘
There is no standard fix script with this name for Entity Filter processing.
Fix scripts are not the recommended or typical method for creating Entities and are not part of the standard GRC Entity lifecycle process.
Incorrect
Correct:
A. Click UI Action: ‘Update Entities from Filter‘
When an Entity Filter is created, the fastest way to generate the corresponding Entities is by using the Update Entities from Filter UI action.
This action immediately evaluates the filter conditions and creates or updates Entities based on the matching records.
It is designed for on-demand generation, especially useful during configuration or testing.
Incorrect:
B. Nothing, Entities should be created automatically
Entities are not created automatically just by defining a filter.
The platform requires an explicit action such as running the UI action or a scheduled job to generate or update Entity records.
C. Execute the scheduled job: ‘GRC: Profile Generation‘
This job is used for generating Profiles, not Entities.
It processes profile types and creates profiles from indicators, controls, risks, and other profile sources, making it unrelated to entity generation.
D. Execute the fix script: ‘Create/Update Entities‘
There is no standard fix script with this name for Entity Filter processing.
Fix scripts are not the recommended or typical method for creating Entities and are not part of the standard GRC Entity lifecycle process.
Unattempted
Correct:
A. Click UI Action: ‘Update Entities from Filter‘
When an Entity Filter is created, the fastest way to generate the corresponding Entities is by using the Update Entities from Filter UI action.
This action immediately evaluates the filter conditions and creates or updates Entities based on the matching records.
It is designed for on-demand generation, especially useful during configuration or testing.
Incorrect:
B. Nothing, Entities should be created automatically
Entities are not created automatically just by defining a filter.
The platform requires an explicit action such as running the UI action or a scheduled job to generate or update Entity records.
C. Execute the scheduled job: ‘GRC: Profile Generation‘
This job is used for generating Profiles, not Entities.
It processes profile types and creates profiles from indicators, controls, risks, and other profile sources, making it unrelated to entity generation.
D. Execute the fix script: ‘Create/Update Entities‘
There is no standard fix script with this name for Entity Filter processing.
Fix scripts are not the recommended or typical method for creating Entities and are not part of the standard GRC Entity lifecycle process.
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
When are controls generated from a Control Objective?
Correct
Entity Type + Control objective > Entity + Control
Incorrect
Entity Type + Control objective > Entity + Control
Unattempted
Entity Type + Control objective > Entity + Control
Question 58 of 60
58. Question
Control objective is related to citation.
Correct
True
• The statement is True. In ServiceNow GRC/IRM, Control Objectives are explicitly related to Citations. This relationship is a Many-to-Many ($\text{M2M}$) relationship.
• The system uses this connection to establish the foundation of compliance: a Citation (a specific requirement or paragraph from a regulation/standard) is mapped to one or more Control Objectives (high-level statements defining what is needed to satisfy a requirement).
• This mapping is crucial for harmonization, allowing a single Control Objective (e.g., “Implement a strong password policy“) to demonstrate compliance for requirements found in multiple Citations (e.g., a HIPAA citation, a GDPR citation, and a PCI DSS citation). The relationship table for this mapping is sn_compliance_m2m_statement_citation.
Incorrect
True
• The statement is True. In ServiceNow GRC/IRM, Control Objectives are explicitly related to Citations. This relationship is a Many-to-Many ($\text{M2M}$) relationship.
• The system uses this connection to establish the foundation of compliance: a Citation (a specific requirement or paragraph from a regulation/standard) is mapped to one or more Control Objectives (high-level statements defining what is needed to satisfy a requirement).
• This mapping is crucial for harmonization, allowing a single Control Objective (e.g., “Implement a strong password policy“) to demonstrate compliance for requirements found in multiple Citations (e.g., a HIPAA citation, a GDPR citation, and a PCI DSS citation). The relationship table for this mapping is sn_compliance_m2m_statement_citation.
Unattempted
True
• The statement is True. In ServiceNow GRC/IRM, Control Objectives are explicitly related to Citations. This relationship is a Many-to-Many ($\text{M2M}$) relationship.
• The system uses this connection to establish the foundation of compliance: a Citation (a specific requirement or paragraph from a regulation/standard) is mapped to one or more Control Objectives (high-level statements defining what is needed to satisfy a requirement).
• This mapping is crucial for harmonization, allowing a single Control Objective (e.g., “Implement a strong password policy“) to demonstrate compliance for requirements found in multiple Citations (e.g., a HIPAA citation, a GDPR citation, and a PCI DSS citation). The relationship table for this mapping is sn_compliance_m2m_statement_citation.
Question 59 of 60
59. Question
The Entity Type table has a many-to-many relationship with which tables? Select 2 answers.
Correct
Correct:
C. Control
Entity Type can be associated with multiple Controls, and each Control can apply to multiple Entity Types.
This many-to-many relationship helps define which controls are relevant for specific types of entities within the organization.
It supports scalable control applicability across different business units, locations, applications, or processes.
D. Risk
Entity Type also has a many-to-many relationship with Risks.
A single Entity Type can be exposed to multiple Risks, and a single Risk can apply to multiple Entity Types.
This relationship allows risk applicability to be inherited or assigned efficiently when performing risk assessments across multiple entities.
Incorrect:
A. Risk Statement
Risk Statements do not have a many-to-many relationship with Entity Type.
Risk Statements are used to define risk conditions and are linked through the risk framework, not directly through Entity Types.
B. Policy
Policies do not maintain a many-to-many relationship with Entity Types.
Policies are mapped through authority documents, controls, and compliance elements rather than through the Entity Type table.
Incorrect
Correct:
C. Control
Entity Type can be associated with multiple Controls, and each Control can apply to multiple Entity Types.
This many-to-many relationship helps define which controls are relevant for specific types of entities within the organization.
It supports scalable control applicability across different business units, locations, applications, or processes.
D. Risk
Entity Type also has a many-to-many relationship with Risks.
A single Entity Type can be exposed to multiple Risks, and a single Risk can apply to multiple Entity Types.
This relationship allows risk applicability to be inherited or assigned efficiently when performing risk assessments across multiple entities.
Incorrect:
A. Risk Statement
Risk Statements do not have a many-to-many relationship with Entity Type.
Risk Statements are used to define risk conditions and are linked through the risk framework, not directly through Entity Types.
B. Policy
Policies do not maintain a many-to-many relationship with Entity Types.
Policies are mapped through authority documents, controls, and compliance elements rather than through the Entity Type table.
Unattempted
Correct:
C. Control
Entity Type can be associated with multiple Controls, and each Control can apply to multiple Entity Types.
This many-to-many relationship helps define which controls are relevant for specific types of entities within the organization.
It supports scalable control applicability across different business units, locations, applications, or processes.
D. Risk
Entity Type also has a many-to-many relationship with Risks.
A single Entity Type can be exposed to multiple Risks, and a single Risk can apply to multiple Entity Types.
This relationship allows risk applicability to be inherited or assigned efficiently when performing risk assessments across multiple entities.
Incorrect:
A. Risk Statement
Risk Statements do not have a many-to-many relationship with Entity Type.
Risk Statements are used to define risk conditions and are linked through the risk framework, not directly through Entity Types.
B. Policy
Policies do not maintain a many-to-many relationship with Entity Types.
Policies are mapped through authority documents, controls, and compliance elements rather than through the Entity Type table.
Question 60 of 60
60. Question
For classic risk assessment, what are the risk components that apply to the Qualitative method? Select 2 answers.