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Review
Question 1 of 60
1. Question
A user with an Android phone is attempting to get email to work properly. The user can send email but cannot receive it. The user is required to connect to a secure IMAP server, as well as an SMTP server that uses SSL. To fix the problem, which port should you configure?
Correct
What should have been port 993 was probably configured incorrectly if the person can send but not receive email. To securely send email over Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), use port 993.
Incorrect Answers: The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25 by default to send mail but will use port 587 (or 465) if SSL or TLS security is implemented. Port 110 is the POP3 email port. POP3 also is used to receive email, but not in this question’s scenario. IMAP can receive email on port 143, but it is not considered secure. Port 443 is commonly used by HTTPS. Configuring email on mobile devices such as Android phones can be a little more difficult, as compared to PCs. Be sure to work with mobile devices and go through the steps of setting up email on both Android and iOS.
Incorrect
What should have been port 993 was probably configured incorrectly if the person can send but not receive email. To securely send email over Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), use port 993.
Incorrect Answers: The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25 by default to send mail but will use port 587 (or 465) if SSL or TLS security is implemented. Port 110 is the POP3 email port. POP3 also is used to receive email, but not in this question’s scenario. IMAP can receive email on port 143, but it is not considered secure. Port 443 is commonly used by HTTPS. Configuring email on mobile devices such as Android phones can be a little more difficult, as compared to PCs. Be sure to work with mobile devices and go through the steps of setting up email on both Android and iOS.
Unattempted
What should have been port 993 was probably configured incorrectly if the person can send but not receive email. To securely send email over Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), use port 993.
Incorrect Answers: The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25 by default to send mail but will use port 587 (or 465) if SSL or TLS security is implemented. Port 110 is the POP3 email port. POP3 also is used to receive email, but not in this question’s scenario. IMAP can receive email on port 143, but it is not considered secure. Port 443 is commonly used by HTTPS. Configuring email on mobile devices such as Android phones can be a little more difficult, as compared to PCs. Be sure to work with mobile devices and go through the steps of setting up email on both Android and iOS.
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
Which of the following is the default file system used by Windows?
Correct
The New Technology File System (NTFS) is the default file system that Windows uses.
Incorrect Answers: FAT32 is an older, less desirable file system that offers less functionality and less security and accesses smaller partition sizes. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) is the file system used by an optical disc. exFAT is another file system supported by Windows that works best with flash-based drives (such as USB thumb drives).
Incorrect
The New Technology File System (NTFS) is the default file system that Windows uses.
Incorrect Answers: FAT32 is an older, less desirable file system that offers less functionality and less security and accesses smaller partition sizes. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) is the file system used by an optical disc. exFAT is another file system supported by Windows that works best with flash-based drives (such as USB thumb drives).
Unattempted
The New Technology File System (NTFS) is the default file system that Windows uses.
Incorrect Answers: FAT32 is an older, less desirable file system that offers less functionality and less security and accesses smaller partition sizes. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) is the file system used by an optical disc. exFAT is another file system supported by Windows that works best with flash-based drives (such as USB thumb drives).
Question 3 of 60
3. Question
You are utilizing WSUS and are testing new updates on PCs. What is this an example of?
Correct
Patch management is the patching of many systems from a central location. It includes the planning, testing, implementing, and auditing stages. There are various software packages you can use to perform patch management. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is an example of Microsoft patch management software. Other Microsoft examples include the System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) and its predecessor Systems Management Center (SMS), but there are plenty of third-party offerings as well.
Incorrect Answers: A host-based firewall is a software firewall that is loaded on a computer to stop attackers from intruding on a network. Application baselining is the performance measurements of an application over time. Virtualization occurs when an operating system is installed to a single file on a computer. Often, it runs virtually on top of another OS.
Incorrect
Patch management is the patching of many systems from a central location. It includes the planning, testing, implementing, and auditing stages. There are various software packages you can use to perform patch management. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is an example of Microsoft patch management software. Other Microsoft examples include the System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) and its predecessor Systems Management Center (SMS), but there are plenty of third-party offerings as well.
Incorrect Answers: A host-based firewall is a software firewall that is loaded on a computer to stop attackers from intruding on a network. Application baselining is the performance measurements of an application over time. Virtualization occurs when an operating system is installed to a single file on a computer. Often, it runs virtually on top of another OS.
Unattempted
Patch management is the patching of many systems from a central location. It includes the planning, testing, implementing, and auditing stages. There are various software packages you can use to perform patch management. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is an example of Microsoft patch management software. Other Microsoft examples include the System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) and its predecessor Systems Management Center (SMS), but there are plenty of third-party offerings as well.
Incorrect Answers: A host-based firewall is a software firewall that is loaded on a computer to stop attackers from intruding on a network. Application baselining is the performance measurements of an application over time. Virtualization occurs when an operating system is installed to a single file on a computer. Often, it runs virtually on top of another OS.
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
What does the b in 1000 Mbps stand for?
Correct
The b in 1000 Mbps stands for bits: 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second or 1 gigabit per second. Remember that the lowercase b is used to indicate bits when measuring network data transfer rates, USB data transfer rates, and other similar serial data transfers.
Incorrect Answers: Bytes and megabytes refer to parallel data transfers or the calculation and storage of data where 8 bits equal a standard byte of information. Network data transfer rates are also known as speed or bandwidth.
Incorrect
The b in 1000 Mbps stands for bits: 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second or 1 gigabit per second. Remember that the lowercase b is used to indicate bits when measuring network data transfer rates, USB data transfer rates, and other similar serial data transfers.
Incorrect Answers: Bytes and megabytes refer to parallel data transfers or the calculation and storage of data where 8 bits equal a standard byte of information. Network data transfer rates are also known as speed or bandwidth.
Unattempted
The b in 1000 Mbps stands for bits: 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second or 1 gigabit per second. Remember that the lowercase b is used to indicate bits when measuring network data transfer rates, USB data transfer rates, and other similar serial data transfers.
Incorrect Answers: Bytes and megabytes refer to parallel data transfers or the calculation and storage of data where 8 bits equal a standard byte of information. Network data transfer rates are also known as speed or bandwidth.
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
If your “bandwidth” is 1000 Mbps, how many bits are you sending/receiving? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second, otherwise notated as 1,000,000,000 bits per second, or 1 gigabit per second.
Incorrect Answers: Data transfer is measured in bits per second (bps), not bits per minute. Consequently, 1000 bits per second would be very slow. At their peak, dial-up modems would transfer 56,000 bits per second, and that is considered the slowest Internet access you could find in the United States.
Incorrect
1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second, otherwise notated as 1,000,000,000 bits per second, or 1 gigabit per second.
Incorrect Answers: Data transfer is measured in bits per second (bps), not bits per minute. Consequently, 1000 bits per second would be very slow. At their peak, dial-up modems would transfer 56,000 bits per second, and that is considered the slowest Internet access you could find in the United States.
Unattempted
1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second, otherwise notated as 1,000,000,000 bits per second, or 1 gigabit per second.
Incorrect Answers: Data transfer is measured in bits per second (bps), not bits per minute. Consequently, 1000 bits per second would be very slow. At their peak, dial-up modems would transfer 56,000 bits per second, and that is considered the slowest Internet access you could find in the United States.
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
Which of the following defines the protocols associated with the following TCP or UDP port numbers, in order? 21, 22, 25, 53, 443, 3389
Correct
The port numbers 21, 22, 25, 53, 443, and 3389 correspond to the protocols FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTPS, and RDP.
Incorrect Answers: The Telnet protocol uses port 23. Telnet is deprecated, insecure, and outdated; plus, it isn’t even installed or enabled on newer versions of operating systems. Use SSH in its place for a more secure connection. HTTP uses port 80. POP3 uses port 110. Know your port numbers!
Incorrect
The port numbers 21, 22, 25, 53, 443, and 3389 correspond to the protocols FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTPS, and RDP.
Incorrect Answers: The Telnet protocol uses port 23. Telnet is deprecated, insecure, and outdated; plus, it isn’t even installed or enabled on newer versions of operating systems. Use SSH in its place for a more secure connection. HTTP uses port 80. POP3 uses port 110. Know your port numbers!
Unattempted
The port numbers 21, 22, 25, 53, 443, and 3389 correspond to the protocols FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTPS, and RDP.
Incorrect Answers: The Telnet protocol uses port 23. Telnet is deprecated, insecure, and outdated; plus, it isn’t even installed or enabled on newer versions of operating systems. Use SSH in its place for a more secure connection. HTTP uses port 80. POP3 uses port 110. Know your port numbers!
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
Where is the Notification Area located in Windows?
Correct
The Notification Area is the area toward the bottom right of your screen within the taskbar. It contains the time and any applications (shown as icons) currently running in memory. The System Properties dialog box contains configuration tabs for the computer name and network, hardware, system restore, and more. You can access any of the tabs in that dialog box quickly by going to Run and typing systempropertiescomputername.exe, systempropertiesadvanced.exe, and so on.
Incorrect Answers: The System32 folder resides within the Windows folder; it contains the critical Windows system files such as ntoskrnl.exe as well as applications such as cmd.exe. The Start menu gives access to most programs and configurations in Windows.
Incorrect
The Notification Area is the area toward the bottom right of your screen within the taskbar. It contains the time and any applications (shown as icons) currently running in memory. The System Properties dialog box contains configuration tabs for the computer name and network, hardware, system restore, and more. You can access any of the tabs in that dialog box quickly by going to Run and typing systempropertiescomputername.exe, systempropertiesadvanced.exe, and so on.
Incorrect Answers: The System32 folder resides within the Windows folder; it contains the critical Windows system files such as ntoskrnl.exe as well as applications such as cmd.exe. The Start menu gives access to most programs and configurations in Windows.
Unattempted
The Notification Area is the area toward the bottom right of your screen within the taskbar. It contains the time and any applications (shown as icons) currently running in memory. The System Properties dialog box contains configuration tabs for the computer name and network, hardware, system restore, and more. You can access any of the tabs in that dialog box quickly by going to Run and typing systempropertiescomputername.exe, systempropertiesadvanced.exe, and so on.
Incorrect Answers: The System32 folder resides within the Windows folder; it contains the critical Windows system files such as ntoskrnl.exe as well as applications such as cmd.exe. The Start menu gives access to most programs and configurations in Windows.
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
Which versions of Windows 8 allow for joining domains? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
B and D Explanation: Windows 8 Pro and Enterprise allow for the joining of domains.
Incorrect Answers: Windows 8 standard does not. Ultimate is the name used with the most powerful edition of Windows 7. In Windows 10, the Pro, Enterprise, and Education editions can join domains, but Home cannot.
Incorrect
B and D Explanation: Windows 8 Pro and Enterprise allow for the joining of domains.
Incorrect Answers: Windows 8 standard does not. Ultimate is the name used with the most powerful edition of Windows 7. In Windows 10, the Pro, Enterprise, and Education editions can join domains, but Home cannot.
Unattempted
B and D Explanation: Windows 8 Pro and Enterprise allow for the joining of domains.
Incorrect Answers: Windows 8 standard does not. Ultimate is the name used with the most powerful edition of Windows 7. In Windows 10, the Pro, Enterprise, and Education editions can join domains, but Home cannot.
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
Viruses have been detected and removed on a customer’s computer several times during the course of several weeks. Which of the following methods will best help prevent future occurrences?
Correct
Because this situation happens often, you should school the user on safer web browsing habits such as being very careful when clicking on links brought up by search engines, not clicking on pop-up windows, and being conservative about the websites that are accessed. Also, the browser can be updated, add-ons can be installed to the web browser for increased protection, phishing filters can be enabled, and so on.
Incorrect Answers: Deleting temporary files won’t stop the user from visiting the same websites that probably caused the problem in the first place. Defragmenting the hard drive will help the drive and the OS perform better but won’t help in the malware department. The computer should have an antivirus solution or, better yet, an antimalware solution, but it should be set to update automatically every day.
Incorrect
Because this situation happens often, you should school the user on safer web browsing habits such as being very careful when clicking on links brought up by search engines, not clicking on pop-up windows, and being conservative about the websites that are accessed. Also, the browser can be updated, add-ons can be installed to the web browser for increased protection, phishing filters can be enabled, and so on.
Incorrect Answers: Deleting temporary files won’t stop the user from visiting the same websites that probably caused the problem in the first place. Defragmenting the hard drive will help the drive and the OS perform better but won’t help in the malware department. The computer should have an antivirus solution or, better yet, an antimalware solution, but it should be set to update automatically every day.
Unattempted
Because this situation happens often, you should school the user on safer web browsing habits such as being very careful when clicking on links brought up by search engines, not clicking on pop-up windows, and being conservative about the websites that are accessed. Also, the browser can be updated, add-ons can be installed to the web browser for increased protection, phishing filters can be enabled, and so on.
Incorrect Answers: Deleting temporary files won’t stop the user from visiting the same websites that probably caused the problem in the first place. Defragmenting the hard drive will help the drive and the OS perform better but won’t help in the malware department. The computer should have an antivirus solution or, better yet, an antimalware solution, but it should be set to update automatically every day.
Question 10 of 60
10. Question
When running cable through drop ceilings, which type of cable do you need?
Correct
Plenum-rated cable needs to be installed wherever a sprinkler system is not able to spray water. This includes ceilings, walls, and plenums (airways). Plenum-rated cable has a protective covering that burns slower and gives off fewer toxic fumes than regular PVCbased cable.
Incorrect Answers: PVCs in regular cable give off toxic fumes in the case of a fire. Category 5 cable can be obtained in regular or plenum-rated versions. “Strong cable” is rather vague.
Incorrect
Plenum-rated cable needs to be installed wherever a sprinkler system is not able to spray water. This includes ceilings, walls, and plenums (airways). Plenum-rated cable has a protective covering that burns slower and gives off fewer toxic fumes than regular PVCbased cable.
Incorrect Answers: PVCs in regular cable give off toxic fumes in the case of a fire. Category 5 cable can be obtained in regular or plenum-rated versions. “Strong cable” is rather vague.
Unattempted
Plenum-rated cable needs to be installed wherever a sprinkler system is not able to spray water. This includes ceilings, walls, and plenums (airways). Plenum-rated cable has a protective covering that burns slower and gives off fewer toxic fumes than regular PVCbased cable.
Incorrect Answers: PVCs in regular cable give off toxic fumes in the case of a fire. Category 5 cable can be obtained in regular or plenum-rated versions. “Strong cable” is rather vague.
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
Which of the following can send data the farthest?
Correct
Single-mode fiber-optic cable can send data farther than any of the other answers—up to hundreds of kilometers.
Incorrect Answers: Multi-mode fiber-optic cable can send data about 600 meters. STP is a type of twisted pair; all twisted pair is limited to 100 meters or 328 feet. Coaxial cable is limited to 200 or 500 meters, depending on the type.
Incorrect
Single-mode fiber-optic cable can send data farther than any of the other answers—up to hundreds of kilometers.
Incorrect Answers: Multi-mode fiber-optic cable can send data about 600 meters. STP is a type of twisted pair; all twisted pair is limited to 100 meters or 328 feet. Coaxial cable is limited to 200 or 500 meters, depending on the type.
Unattempted
Single-mode fiber-optic cable can send data farther than any of the other answers—up to hundreds of kilometers.
Incorrect Answers: Multi-mode fiber-optic cable can send data about 600 meters. STP is a type of twisted pair; all twisted pair is limited to 100 meters or 328 feet. Coaxial cable is limited to 200 or 500 meters, depending on the type.
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
Which of the following multimeter settings should be used only when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
Of the listed answers, continuity and resistance are the settings that you should use when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested, and you want to be sure that there is no electrical flow when doing these tests. Examples of continuity or resistance tests include testing a fuse’s impedance (measured in ohms) and testing a network cable for continuity. In each example, you don’t want any electricity flowing through the device or line. It would give erratic results and could possibly cause damage to your testing equipment and even you.
Incorrect Answers: When testing for watts, volts, and amps, you need to have electricity flowing through the item you want to test.
Incorrect
Of the listed answers, continuity and resistance are the settings that you should use when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested, and you want to be sure that there is no electrical flow when doing these tests. Examples of continuity or resistance tests include testing a fuse’s impedance (measured in ohms) and testing a network cable for continuity. In each example, you don’t want any electricity flowing through the device or line. It would give erratic results and could possibly cause damage to your testing equipment and even you.
Incorrect Answers: When testing for watts, volts, and amps, you need to have electricity flowing through the item you want to test.
Unattempted
Of the listed answers, continuity and resistance are the settings that you should use when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested, and you want to be sure that there is no electrical flow when doing these tests. Examples of continuity or resistance tests include testing a fuse’s impedance (measured in ohms) and testing a network cable for continuity. In each example, you don’t want any electricity flowing through the device or line. It would give erratic results and could possibly cause damage to your testing equipment and even you.
Incorrect Answers: When testing for watts, volts, and amps, you need to have electricity flowing through the item you want to test.
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
Which of the following is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install a 64-bit version of Windows 10?
Correct
Windows 10 64-bit requires a minimum of 2 GB of RAM.
Incorrect Answers: The 32-bit version requires 1 GB. The same goes for Windows 8.1. A minimum requirement for older versions of Windows was 512 MB. No doubt, 4 GB will be the minimum for some Windows versions at some point.
Incorrect
Windows 10 64-bit requires a minimum of 2 GB of RAM.
Incorrect Answers: The 32-bit version requires 1 GB. The same goes for Windows 8.1. A minimum requirement for older versions of Windows was 512 MB. No doubt, 4 GB will be the minimum for some Windows versions at some point.
Unattempted
Windows 10 64-bit requires a minimum of 2 GB of RAM.
Incorrect Answers: The 32-bit version requires 1 GB. The same goes for Windows 8.1. A minimum requirement for older versions of Windows was 512 MB. No doubt, 4 GB will be the minimum for some Windows versions at some point.
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
One of your customers reports that there is a large amount of spam in her email inbox. Which of the following statements describes the best course of action to recommend to her?
Correct
You should recommend that the user add the senders to the junk email sender list. This blocks those senders’ email addresses (or the entire domain can be blocked). However, this option could take a lot of time; another option is to increase the level of security on the spam filter within the email program. Any further spam can then be sent to the junk email sender list.
Incorrect Answers: Users need their email accounts, and creating a new one can result in a lot of work for the user. Finding a new ISP is overreacting a bit; plus, the user has no idea if one ISP will be better at stopping spam than another. Never tell a user to reply to spam. Spam emails should be sent to the spam folder and never replied to— unless you want 10 times the amount of spam.
Incorrect
You should recommend that the user add the senders to the junk email sender list. This blocks those senders’ email addresses (or the entire domain can be blocked). However, this option could take a lot of time; another option is to increase the level of security on the spam filter within the email program. Any further spam can then be sent to the junk email sender list.
Incorrect Answers: Users need their email accounts, and creating a new one can result in a lot of work for the user. Finding a new ISP is overreacting a bit; plus, the user has no idea if one ISP will be better at stopping spam than another. Never tell a user to reply to spam. Spam emails should be sent to the spam folder and never replied to— unless you want 10 times the amount of spam.
Unattempted
You should recommend that the user add the senders to the junk email sender list. This blocks those senders’ email addresses (or the entire domain can be blocked). However, this option could take a lot of time; another option is to increase the level of security on the spam filter within the email program. Any further spam can then be sent to the junk email sender list.
Incorrect Answers: Users need their email accounts, and creating a new one can result in a lot of work for the user. Finding a new ISP is overreacting a bit; plus, the user has no idea if one ISP will be better at stopping spam than another. Never tell a user to reply to spam. Spam emails should be sent to the spam folder and never replied to— unless you want 10 times the amount of spam.
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
Which of the following sends an invitation by email asking for help?
Correct
Connections can be made by sending Remote Assistance invitations by email (Outlook or other email client) or Easy Connect. These invitations could be to ask for help or to offer help. This approach is often implemented in help desk scenarios in which a user invites a technician to take control of his computer so that it can be repaired. It’s effectively a virtual service call. The technician doesn’t need to come physically to the user’s desk but instead connects remotely.
Incorrect Answers: You can also take control of a computer without an invitation (and if you are an administrator or a user with permissions); this can be done only if the computer to be controlled has the Remote Desktop feature turned on. Virtual network computing (VNC) is similar to Remote Desktop; it enables control of a computer remotely. Several thirdparty VNC companies offer free software. Microsoft doesn’t refer to its software as VNC though. Collectively, the client software is also referred to as either Remote Desktop or Microsoft Terminal Services Client (MSTSC). Mstsc.exe is the executable that can also be used in the Command Prompt.
Incorrect
Connections can be made by sending Remote Assistance invitations by email (Outlook or other email client) or Easy Connect. These invitations could be to ask for help or to offer help. This approach is often implemented in help desk scenarios in which a user invites a technician to take control of his computer so that it can be repaired. It’s effectively a virtual service call. The technician doesn’t need to come physically to the user’s desk but instead connects remotely.
Incorrect Answers: You can also take control of a computer without an invitation (and if you are an administrator or a user with permissions); this can be done only if the computer to be controlled has the Remote Desktop feature turned on. Virtual network computing (VNC) is similar to Remote Desktop; it enables control of a computer remotely. Several thirdparty VNC companies offer free software. Microsoft doesn’t refer to its software as VNC though. Collectively, the client software is also referred to as either Remote Desktop or Microsoft Terminal Services Client (MSTSC). Mstsc.exe is the executable that can also be used in the Command Prompt.
Unattempted
Connections can be made by sending Remote Assistance invitations by email (Outlook or other email client) or Easy Connect. These invitations could be to ask for help or to offer help. This approach is often implemented in help desk scenarios in which a user invites a technician to take control of his computer so that it can be repaired. It’s effectively a virtual service call. The technician doesn’t need to come physically to the user’s desk but instead connects remotely.
Incorrect Answers: You can also take control of a computer without an invitation (and if you are an administrator or a user with permissions); this can be done only if the computer to be controlled has the Remote Desktop feature turned on. Virtual network computing (VNC) is similar to Remote Desktop; it enables control of a computer remotely. Several thirdparty VNC companies offer free software. Microsoft doesn’t refer to its software as VNC though. Collectively, the client software is also referred to as either Remote Desktop or Microsoft Terminal Services Client (MSTSC). Mstsc.exe is the executable that can also be used in the Command Prompt.
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
Which device connects multiple computers in a LAN?
Correct
A switch connects computers together in a local-area network (LAN). In SOHO networks, it is usually a part of a multifunction network device. In larger networks, the switch is an individual device that has 24, 48, or 96 ports.
Incorrect Answers: A modem connects a PC to the Internet either by way of a coaxial cable connection (as in a cable modem) or a dial-up connection over a plain old telephone service (POTS) line (as in a dial-up modem). A router connects one network to another. Though a SOHO multifunction device is often referred to as a router, it is not the router portion of that device that connects the computers in the LAN. A firewall protects all the computers on the LAN from intrusion.
Incorrect
A switch connects computers together in a local-area network (LAN). In SOHO networks, it is usually a part of a multifunction network device. In larger networks, the switch is an individual device that has 24, 48, or 96 ports.
Incorrect Answers: A modem connects a PC to the Internet either by way of a coaxial cable connection (as in a cable modem) or a dial-up connection over a plain old telephone service (POTS) line (as in a dial-up modem). A router connects one network to another. Though a SOHO multifunction device is often referred to as a router, it is not the router portion of that device that connects the computers in the LAN. A firewall protects all the computers on the LAN from intrusion.
Unattempted
A switch connects computers together in a local-area network (LAN). In SOHO networks, it is usually a part of a multifunction network device. In larger networks, the switch is an individual device that has 24, 48, or 96 ports.
Incorrect Answers: A modem connects a PC to the Internet either by way of a coaxial cable connection (as in a cable modem) or a dial-up connection over a plain old telephone service (POTS) line (as in a dial-up modem). A router connects one network to another. Though a SOHO multifunction device is often referred to as a router, it is not the router portion of that device that connects the computers in the LAN. A firewall protects all the computers on the LAN from intrusion.
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
You need to expand the peripherals of a computer, but the system doesn’t have enough ports. Which type of card should be installed?
Correct
You should install a USB add-on card. This will give you more ports than the computer already has for use with peripherals. Another option—and a more common option at that—would be to purchase a USB hub.
Incorrect Answers: Modems, network adapters, and TV tuner cards all have their own purpose and do not allow additional peripherals.
Incorrect
You should install a USB add-on card. This will give you more ports than the computer already has for use with peripherals. Another option—and a more common option at that—would be to purchase a USB hub.
Incorrect Answers: Modems, network adapters, and TV tuner cards all have their own purpose and do not allow additional peripherals.
Unattempted
You should install a USB add-on card. This will give you more ports than the computer already has for use with peripherals. Another option—and a more common option at that—would be to purchase a USB hub.
Incorrect Answers: Modems, network adapters, and TV tuner cards all have their own purpose and do not allow additional peripherals.
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
When a PC is first booted, which of the following tests the processor, RAM, video card, hard drive controllers, drives, and keyboard?
Correct
The power-on self-test (POST) checks the CPU, memory, video card, and so on when the computer first boots and displays any error messages if any errors occur.
Incorrect Answers: BIOS setup (or UEFI setup) is the program you can access to configure the system. The BIOS itself is more than just the setup program that you can access, and the POST is a part of that BIOS. The CMOS chip retains settings that the BIOS records during the POST. The bootstrap loader is within the ROM chip as well. When the computer is turned on, it automatically reads the hard drive boot sector to continue the process of booting the operating system.
Incorrect
The power-on self-test (POST) checks the CPU, memory, video card, and so on when the computer first boots and displays any error messages if any errors occur.
Incorrect Answers: BIOS setup (or UEFI setup) is the program you can access to configure the system. The BIOS itself is more than just the setup program that you can access, and the POST is a part of that BIOS. The CMOS chip retains settings that the BIOS records during the POST. The bootstrap loader is within the ROM chip as well. When the computer is turned on, it automatically reads the hard drive boot sector to continue the process of booting the operating system.
Unattempted
The power-on self-test (POST) checks the CPU, memory, video card, and so on when the computer first boots and displays any error messages if any errors occur.
Incorrect Answers: BIOS setup (or UEFI setup) is the program you can access to configure the system. The BIOS itself is more than just the setup program that you can access, and the POST is a part of that BIOS. The CMOS chip retains settings that the BIOS records during the POST. The bootstrap loader is within the ROM chip as well. When the computer is turned on, it automatically reads the hard drive boot sector to continue the process of booting the operating system.
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
In Windows, an MMC is blank by default. Which of the following should be added to the MMC to populate it with programs?
Correct
The MMC (Microsoft Management Console) is a blank shell until you add snap-ins (such as Computer Management or the Performance Monitor) for functionality.
Incorrect Answers: Some people refer to each program in the Control Panel as an applet; the term was made famous by Apple. You don’t add actual files or directories (folders) to the MMC; you add other programs within Windows. The MMC acts as an index for your programs and remembers the last place you were working (if you save it).
Incorrect
The MMC (Microsoft Management Console) is a blank shell until you add snap-ins (such as Computer Management or the Performance Monitor) for functionality.
Incorrect Answers: Some people refer to each program in the Control Panel as an applet; the term was made famous by Apple. You don’t add actual files or directories (folders) to the MMC; you add other programs within Windows. The MMC acts as an index for your programs and remembers the last place you were working (if you save it).
Unattempted
The MMC (Microsoft Management Console) is a blank shell until you add snap-ins (such as Computer Management or the Performance Monitor) for functionality.
Incorrect Answers: Some people refer to each program in the Control Panel as an applet; the term was made famous by Apple. You don’t add actual files or directories (folders) to the MMC; you add other programs within Windows. The MMC acts as an index for your programs and remembers the last place you were working (if you save it).
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
In Windows, where can devices like the display and hard drives be configured to turn off after a certain amount of time?
Correct
To turn off devices after a specified period of time in Windows, access Control Panel > Power Options. Then click Change Plan Settings for the appropriate power plan.
Incorrect Answers: Display Properties allows you to modify things such as screen resolution. Computer Management is a commonly used console window in Windows; it includes the Event Viewer, Disk Management, and Services. The Task Manager is used to analyze system resources and end tasks (among other things).
Incorrect
To turn off devices after a specified period of time in Windows, access Control Panel > Power Options. Then click Change Plan Settings for the appropriate power plan.
Incorrect Answers: Display Properties allows you to modify things such as screen resolution. Computer Management is a commonly used console window in Windows; it includes the Event Viewer, Disk Management, and Services. The Task Manager is used to analyze system resources and end tasks (among other things).
Unattempted
To turn off devices after a specified period of time in Windows, access Control Panel > Power Options. Then click Change Plan Settings for the appropriate power plan.
Incorrect Answers: Display Properties allows you to modify things such as screen resolution. Computer Management is a commonly used console window in Windows; it includes the Event Viewer, Disk Management, and Services. The Task Manager is used to analyze system resources and end tasks (among other things).
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
When you are performing a clean installation, which of the following is the default location for the system files of Windows?
Correct
The default folder location for Windows system files is C:\Windows\System32—that is, if C: is the drive being installed to (which is the default). You might also see this referred to as X:\%windir%\System32 or simply \%windir%\System32. The X: is a variable meaning whichever volume is installed to. %windir% is a variable referring to the name of the main installation folder (usually Windows). %windir% is also expressed sometimes as %systemroot%.
Incorrect Answers: C:\Windows is the systemroot, where the OS is installed (though it also inhabits subfolders). C:\Windows\System32\Config is the folder where the Registry hives are stored. There is no C:\System Files folder, unless you were to create it yourself.
Incorrect
The default folder location for Windows system files is C:\Windows\System32—that is, if C: is the drive being installed to (which is the default). You might also see this referred to as X:\%windir%\System32 or simply \%windir%\System32. The X: is a variable meaning whichever volume is installed to. %windir% is a variable referring to the name of the main installation folder (usually Windows). %windir% is also expressed sometimes as %systemroot%.
Incorrect Answers: C:\Windows is the systemroot, where the OS is installed (though it also inhabits subfolders). C:\Windows\System32\Config is the folder where the Registry hives are stored. There is no C:\System Files folder, unless you were to create it yourself.
Unattempted
The default folder location for Windows system files is C:\Windows\System32—that is, if C: is the drive being installed to (which is the default). You might also see this referred to as X:\%windir%\System32 or simply \%windir%\System32. The X: is a variable meaning whichever volume is installed to. %windir% is a variable referring to the name of the main installation folder (usually Windows). %windir% is also expressed sometimes as %systemroot%.
Incorrect Answers: C:\Windows is the systemroot, where the OS is installed (though it also inhabits subfolders). C:\Windows\System32\Config is the folder where the Registry hives are stored. There is no C:\System Files folder, unless you were to create it yourself.
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
Which device stores data over the long term?
Correct
The hard drive stores data over the long term. The hard drive stores the OS and data in a nonvolatile fashion, meaning the data won’t be erased when the computer is turned off.
Incorrect Answers: The CPU calculates data and sends it to RAM for temporary storage; the RAM (which is volatile) is cleared when the computer is turned off. The video card stores temporary video data within its onboard memory, but this, like RAM, is volatile and is cleared when the computer is turned off.
Incorrect
The hard drive stores data over the long term. The hard drive stores the OS and data in a nonvolatile fashion, meaning the data won’t be erased when the computer is turned off.
Incorrect Answers: The CPU calculates data and sends it to RAM for temporary storage; the RAM (which is volatile) is cleared when the computer is turned off. The video card stores temporary video data within its onboard memory, but this, like RAM, is volatile and is cleared when the computer is turned off.
Unattempted
The hard drive stores data over the long term. The hard drive stores the OS and data in a nonvolatile fashion, meaning the data won’t be erased when the computer is turned off.
Incorrect Answers: The CPU calculates data and sends it to RAM for temporary storage; the RAM (which is volatile) is cleared when the computer is turned off. The video card stores temporary video data within its onboard memory, but this, like RAM, is volatile and is cleared when the computer is turned off.
Question 23 of 60
23. Question
Which of the following is the typical speed of an SATA hard disk drive?
Correct
A typical speed of a magnetic hard disk drive is 7200 RPM—rotational speed, that is. Other common rotational speeds include 5400 RPM, 10,000 RPM, and 15,000 RPM. Note: Solid-state hard drives do not have a magnetic disk and therefore are not given an RPM rating or a latency rating.
Incorrect Answers: A common network data transfer rate is 1000 Mbps. SATA hard drives commonly have a DTR of 6 Gb/s (600 MB/s). Note that 3.1 GHz is a common CPU frequency, and 32 GB might be the amount of RAM you install in a computer or the size of a USB flash drive.
Incorrect
A typical speed of a magnetic hard disk drive is 7200 RPM—rotational speed, that is. Other common rotational speeds include 5400 RPM, 10,000 RPM, and 15,000 RPM. Note: Solid-state hard drives do not have a magnetic disk and therefore are not given an RPM rating or a latency rating.
Incorrect Answers: A common network data transfer rate is 1000 Mbps. SATA hard drives commonly have a DTR of 6 Gb/s (600 MB/s). Note that 3.1 GHz is a common CPU frequency, and 32 GB might be the amount of RAM you install in a computer or the size of a USB flash drive.
Unattempted
A typical speed of a magnetic hard disk drive is 7200 RPM—rotational speed, that is. Other common rotational speeds include 5400 RPM, 10,000 RPM, and 15,000 RPM. Note: Solid-state hard drives do not have a magnetic disk and therefore are not given an RPM rating or a latency rating.
Incorrect Answers: A common network data transfer rate is 1000 Mbps. SATA hard drives commonly have a DTR of 6 Gb/s (600 MB/s). Note that 3.1 GHz is a common CPU frequency, and 32 GB might be the amount of RAM you install in a computer or the size of a USB flash drive.
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
One of your customers needs to provide the following for corporate laptops:
?User security
?Charging ability
?Access to LAN resources
?Connect removable hardware
Which of the following would be the best solution for all requirements?
Correct
A docking station meets the needs of all the requirements including security (often with a Kensington security lock), charging, accessing the LAN, and connecting hardware.
Incorrect Answers: A port replicator is similar to a docking station, but it doesn’t have as much functionality; it is generally used to connect peripherals such as keyboard, mouse, and monitor. Thunderbolt is an expansion bus and external port used for data transfer and displays. A USB hub allows for connecting removable hardware but doesn’t meet the other needs. A cable lock is a good idea for securing laptops, but it meets only one of the requirements—security.
Incorrect
A docking station meets the needs of all the requirements including security (often with a Kensington security lock), charging, accessing the LAN, and connecting hardware.
Incorrect Answers: A port replicator is similar to a docking station, but it doesn’t have as much functionality; it is generally used to connect peripherals such as keyboard, mouse, and monitor. Thunderbolt is an expansion bus and external port used for data transfer and displays. A USB hub allows for connecting removable hardware but doesn’t meet the other needs. A cable lock is a good idea for securing laptops, but it meets only one of the requirements—security.
Unattempted
A docking station meets the needs of all the requirements including security (often with a Kensington security lock), charging, accessing the LAN, and connecting hardware.
Incorrect Answers: A port replicator is similar to a docking station, but it doesn’t have as much functionality; it is generally used to connect peripherals such as keyboard, mouse, and monitor. Thunderbolt is an expansion bus and external port used for data transfer and displays. A USB hub allows for connecting removable hardware but doesn’t meet the other needs. A cable lock is a good idea for securing laptops, but it meets only one of the requirements—security.
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
Which of the following files is the boot loader in Windows?
Correct
Winload.exe is the Windows boot loader program for Windows 10, 8, and 7. It is located in %systemroot%\System32 (which is usually C:\Windows\System32). It works in conjunction with the Bootmgr file (Windows Boot Manager). Bootmgr is the first file to load in Windows. It reads the BCD and displays an OS menu (if there is more than one OS).
Incorrect Answers: The BCD is the Boot Configuration Data store; it is the successor to boot.ini. Setup.exe is the default name of the file that starts installations of Windows and many other programs. Ntoskrnl.exe is the main system file of Windows; without it, the system would crash and the file would have to be replaced or repaired.
Incorrect
Winload.exe is the Windows boot loader program for Windows 10, 8, and 7. It is located in %systemroot%\System32 (which is usually C:\Windows\System32). It works in conjunction with the Bootmgr file (Windows Boot Manager). Bootmgr is the first file to load in Windows. It reads the BCD and displays an OS menu (if there is more than one OS).
Incorrect Answers: The BCD is the Boot Configuration Data store; it is the successor to boot.ini. Setup.exe is the default name of the file that starts installations of Windows and many other programs. Ntoskrnl.exe is the main system file of Windows; without it, the system would crash and the file would have to be replaced or repaired.
Unattempted
Winload.exe is the Windows boot loader program for Windows 10, 8, and 7. It is located in %systemroot%\System32 (which is usually C:\Windows\System32). It works in conjunction with the Bootmgr file (Windows Boot Manager). Bootmgr is the first file to load in Windows. It reads the BCD and displays an OS menu (if there is more than one OS).
Incorrect Answers: The BCD is the Boot Configuration Data store; it is the successor to boot.ini. Setup.exe is the default name of the file that starts installations of Windows and many other programs. Ntoskrnl.exe is the main system file of Windows; without it, the system would crash and the file would have to be replaced or repaired.
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
Which of the following procedures best describes how to find out which type of connection the printer is using?
Correct
On the Ports tab, you can find how the printer is connected to the computer. This can be a USB, COM, LPT, or TCP/IP port. You might get to this tab by selecting Properties or Printer Properties, depending on the printer.
Incorrect Answers: The Sharing tab allows you to share a locally connected (or remotely controlled) printer on the network. The Advanced tab has options such as print spooling and printer pooling. The Separator page button allows you to configure a page that is inserted after every print job.
Incorrect
On the Ports tab, you can find how the printer is connected to the computer. This can be a USB, COM, LPT, or TCP/IP port. You might get to this tab by selecting Properties or Printer Properties, depending on the printer.
Incorrect Answers: The Sharing tab allows you to share a locally connected (or remotely controlled) printer on the network. The Advanced tab has options such as print spooling and printer pooling. The Separator page button allows you to configure a page that is inserted after every print job.
Unattempted
On the Ports tab, you can find how the printer is connected to the computer. This can be a USB, COM, LPT, or TCP/IP port. You might get to this tab by selecting Properties or Printer Properties, depending on the printer.
Incorrect Answers: The Sharing tab allows you to share a locally connected (or remotely controlled) printer on the network. The Advanced tab has options such as print spooling and printer pooling. The Separator page button allows you to configure a page that is inserted after every print job.
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
You are required to set up a remote backup solution for music and photos stored on an Android tablet. The files cannot be stored at any company location. Which technology should be used?
Correct
You would use the Google Cloud solution so that files can be backed up to a location outside the company. This backup—or full synchronization method —is great for Android-based smartphones or tablets as well as Google Chromebooks. Several other third-party solutions are available as well.
Incorrect Answers: iCloud is the Apple solution for file backup, apps, and so on. Microsoft OneDrive has the same types of features in a variety of solutions. Though there is some crossover between cloud platforms, generally Android users would back up to the Google Cloud. A company-based local network-attached storage (NAS) device would go against what you have been asked to do in the scenario. If the NAS were on the Internet or part of a cloud, that would be a different story.
Incorrect
You would use the Google Cloud solution so that files can be backed up to a location outside the company. This backup—or full synchronization method —is great for Android-based smartphones or tablets as well as Google Chromebooks. Several other third-party solutions are available as well.
Incorrect Answers: iCloud is the Apple solution for file backup, apps, and so on. Microsoft OneDrive has the same types of features in a variety of solutions. Though there is some crossover between cloud platforms, generally Android users would back up to the Google Cloud. A company-based local network-attached storage (NAS) device would go against what you have been asked to do in the scenario. If the NAS were on the Internet or part of a cloud, that would be a different story.
Unattempted
You would use the Google Cloud solution so that files can be backed up to a location outside the company. This backup—or full synchronization method —is great for Android-based smartphones or tablets as well as Google Chromebooks. Several other third-party solutions are available as well.
Incorrect Answers: iCloud is the Apple solution for file backup, apps, and so on. Microsoft OneDrive has the same types of features in a variety of solutions. Though there is some crossover between cloud platforms, generally Android users would back up to the Google Cloud. A company-based local network-attached storage (NAS) device would go against what you have been asked to do in the scenario. If the NAS were on the Internet or part of a cloud, that would be a different story.
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
To which type of technology would you install a x16 card?
Correct
PCI Express (PCIe) expansion slots accept x1, x4, and x16 cards (pronounced “by one”, “by four”, and “by sixteen” respectively).
Incorrect Answers: PCIe is by far the most common expansion slot for video cards (which are usually x16). Thunderbolt is a technology used primarily with Mac computers for displays and for data transfer. USB stands for universal serial bus; it is a standard for connecting external equipment to a computer, not an expansion bus for use with cards. DisplayPort is a video technology that acts as connectivity between the video card and the monitor.
Incorrect
PCI Express (PCIe) expansion slots accept x1, x4, and x16 cards (pronounced “by one”, “by four”, and “by sixteen” respectively).
Incorrect Answers: PCIe is by far the most common expansion slot for video cards (which are usually x16). Thunderbolt is a technology used primarily with Mac computers for displays and for data transfer. USB stands for universal serial bus; it is a standard for connecting external equipment to a computer, not an expansion bus for use with cards. DisplayPort is a video technology that acts as connectivity between the video card and the monitor.
Unattempted
PCI Express (PCIe) expansion slots accept x1, x4, and x16 cards (pronounced “by one”, “by four”, and “by sixteen” respectively).
Incorrect Answers: PCIe is by far the most common expansion slot for video cards (which are usually x16). Thunderbolt is a technology used primarily with Mac computers for displays and for data transfer. USB stands for universal serial bus; it is a standard for connecting external equipment to a computer, not an expansion bus for use with cards. DisplayPort is a video technology that acts as connectivity between the video card and the monitor.
Question 29 of 60
29. Question
Which of the following best describes the differences between a switch and a router?
Correct
A switch interconnects devices on the same network so that they can communicate, whereas a router interconnects one or more networks.
Incorrect Answers: All other answers are incorrect. Remember that the switch is in charge of connecting devices on the LAN, but the router is in charge of connecting the LAN to another LAN, to the Internet, or to both. Multifunction network devices make matters confusing; they combine the functionality of a switch, a router, a wireless access point, and a firewall. Physically, the four-port section of the device is the switch portion, and the single port that leads to the Internet is the router portion.
Incorrect
A switch interconnects devices on the same network so that they can communicate, whereas a router interconnects one or more networks.
Incorrect Answers: All other answers are incorrect. Remember that the switch is in charge of connecting devices on the LAN, but the router is in charge of connecting the LAN to another LAN, to the Internet, or to both. Multifunction network devices make matters confusing; they combine the functionality of a switch, a router, a wireless access point, and a firewall. Physically, the four-port section of the device is the switch portion, and the single port that leads to the Internet is the router portion.
Unattempted
A switch interconnects devices on the same network so that they can communicate, whereas a router interconnects one or more networks.
Incorrect Answers: All other answers are incorrect. Remember that the switch is in charge of connecting devices on the LAN, but the router is in charge of connecting the LAN to another LAN, to the Internet, or to both. Multifunction network devices make matters confusing; they combine the functionality of a switch, a router, a wireless access point, and a firewall. Physically, the four-port section of the device is the switch portion, and the single port that leads to the Internet is the router portion.
Question 30 of 60
30. Question
You have purchased a motherboard for your new audio workstation. You have opened the computer case and are ready to install. What are the first and last things you should do? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
The first thing you should do is put on your antistatic strap. The last thing you should do is test the motherboard. Always remember to test!
Incorrect Answers: You already selected the motherboard. Technically, installing the CPU isn’t really part of the motherboard installation process, but you can’t really test the motherboard without it. Either way, the CPU would be installed before testing. Cables need to be connected during the installation and prior to testing. But anything that deals with power or circuit boards should not be touched unless you are wearing an antistatic strap.
Incorrect
The first thing you should do is put on your antistatic strap. The last thing you should do is test the motherboard. Always remember to test!
Incorrect Answers: You already selected the motherboard. Technically, installing the CPU isn’t really part of the motherboard installation process, but you can’t really test the motherboard without it. Either way, the CPU would be installed before testing. Cables need to be connected during the installation and prior to testing. But anything that deals with power or circuit boards should not be touched unless you are wearing an antistatic strap.
Unattempted
The first thing you should do is put on your antistatic strap. The last thing you should do is test the motherboard. Always remember to test!
Incorrect Answers: You already selected the motherboard. Technically, installing the CPU isn’t really part of the motherboard installation process, but you can’t really test the motherboard without it. Either way, the CPU would be installed before testing. Cables need to be connected during the installation and prior to testing. But anything that deals with power or circuit boards should not be touched unless you are wearing an antistatic strap.
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
Which specific tool enables you to create a partition in Windows?
Correct
Disk Management is a tool found in Computer Management and allows for the creation, deletion, and formatting of partitions and logical drives. To view this application, use the Search tool (and search for Disk Management), utilize the Start menu, or go to Run and type diskmgmt.msc.
Incorrect Answers: The format command is a utility in the Windows Command Prompt that can be used to format partitions as NTFS or another file system type, but it does not create partitions. Disk Cleanup is a built-in Windows program that can remove temporary files and other data that you probably won’t use.
Incorrect
Disk Management is a tool found in Computer Management and allows for the creation, deletion, and formatting of partitions and logical drives. To view this application, use the Search tool (and search for Disk Management), utilize the Start menu, or go to Run and type diskmgmt.msc.
Incorrect Answers: The format command is a utility in the Windows Command Prompt that can be used to format partitions as NTFS or another file system type, but it does not create partitions. Disk Cleanup is a built-in Windows program that can remove temporary files and other data that you probably won’t use.
Unattempted
Disk Management is a tool found in Computer Management and allows for the creation, deletion, and formatting of partitions and logical drives. To view this application, use the Search tool (and search for Disk Management), utilize the Start menu, or go to Run and type diskmgmt.msc.
Incorrect Answers: The format command is a utility in the Windows Command Prompt that can be used to format partitions as NTFS or another file system type, but it does not create partitions. Disk Cleanup is a built-in Windows program that can remove temporary files and other data that you probably won’t use.
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
Your customer is having problems printing from an application. You attempt to send a test page to the printer. Which of the following statements best describes why a test page should be used to troubleshoot the issue?
Correct
The test page verifies connectivity and gives you insight as to possible application problems at the computer that is attempting to print.
Incorrect Answers: In this case, you aren’t worried about the quality of the printer output; it is the computer and the application that you are troubleshooting. You use test pages to make sure the computer can print properly to the printer, not to initiate diagnostic routines. Those would be initiated from the built-in display and menu on the printer, or in Windows by right-clicking the printer, selecting Printer properties, and then selecting Print Test Page. Printing a test page does not clear the print queue or reset printer memory. You would have to do this at the printer and/or at the computer controlling the printer.
Incorrect
The test page verifies connectivity and gives you insight as to possible application problems at the computer that is attempting to print.
Incorrect Answers: In this case, you aren’t worried about the quality of the printer output; it is the computer and the application that you are troubleshooting. You use test pages to make sure the computer can print properly to the printer, not to initiate diagnostic routines. Those would be initiated from the built-in display and menu on the printer, or in Windows by right-clicking the printer, selecting Printer properties, and then selecting Print Test Page. Printing a test page does not clear the print queue or reset printer memory. You would have to do this at the printer and/or at the computer controlling the printer.
Unattempted
The test page verifies connectivity and gives you insight as to possible application problems at the computer that is attempting to print.
Incorrect Answers: In this case, you aren’t worried about the quality of the printer output; it is the computer and the application that you are troubleshooting. You use test pages to make sure the computer can print properly to the printer, not to initiate diagnostic routines. Those would be initiated from the built-in display and menu on the printer, or in Windows by right-clicking the printer, selecting Printer properties, and then selecting Print Test Page. Printing a test page does not clear the print queue or reset printer memory. You would have to do this at the printer and/or at the computer controlling the printer.
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
You need to copy and paste information from a web page, but you want to remove all formatting so that it can be pasted cleanly into Word. Which program should be used as an intermediary?
Correct
Use Notepad. This text-based editor applies virtually no formatting. Text and other information can be copied from a web page, pasted to a Notepad document, and then copied again and pasted into Word; all formatting is removed. Notepad (and third-party tools such as Notepad++) can also be used for scripting and web page development.
Incorrect Answers: CMD, or more specifically cmd.exe, is the executable that opens the Microsoft Command Prompt. Excel is a program by Microsoft that enables you to create and modify spreadsheets. The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console. It is a utility in Windows that enables you to work with several console windows within the same program; it saves the last place you were working.
Incorrect
Use Notepad. This text-based editor applies virtually no formatting. Text and other information can be copied from a web page, pasted to a Notepad document, and then copied again and pasted into Word; all formatting is removed. Notepad (and third-party tools such as Notepad++) can also be used for scripting and web page development.
Incorrect Answers: CMD, or more specifically cmd.exe, is the executable that opens the Microsoft Command Prompt. Excel is a program by Microsoft that enables you to create and modify spreadsheets. The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console. It is a utility in Windows that enables you to work with several console windows within the same program; it saves the last place you were working.
Unattempted
Use Notepad. This text-based editor applies virtually no formatting. Text and other information can be copied from a web page, pasted to a Notepad document, and then copied again and pasted into Word; all formatting is removed. Notepad (and third-party tools such as Notepad++) can also be used for scripting and web page development.
Incorrect Answers: CMD, or more specifically cmd.exe, is the executable that opens the Microsoft Command Prompt. Excel is a program by Microsoft that enables you to create and modify spreadsheets. The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console. It is a utility in Windows that enables you to work with several console windows within the same program; it saves the last place you were working.
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
Tim installs a new CPU in a computer. After a few hours, the processor starts to overheat. Which of the following might be the cause?
Correct
Without the thermal compound applied, the processor might overheat after a few hours.
Incorrect Answers: If the CPU is not locked down or is not properly seated, the PC will simply fail to boot. If the CPU is not compatible with the motherboard, either it will not fit the socket or the PC will not boot.
Incorrect
Without the thermal compound applied, the processor might overheat after a few hours.
Incorrect Answers: If the CPU is not locked down or is not properly seated, the PC will simply fail to boot. If the CPU is not compatible with the motherboard, either it will not fit the socket or the PC will not boot.
Unattempted
Without the thermal compound applied, the processor might overheat after a few hours.
Incorrect Answers: If the CPU is not locked down or is not properly seated, the PC will simply fail to boot. If the CPU is not compatible with the motherboard, either it will not fit the socket or the PC will not boot.
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
A group of users in ABC Corp. needs to back up several gigabytes of data daily. Which of the following is the best media for this scenario?
Correct
In a large corporation (or enterprise environment), tape backup such as Linear Tape-Open (LTO) or Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is the best media for backing up.
Incorrect Answers: LTO and DLT tapes have a large capacity, allowing for a huge amount of backup as compared to DVD and dual-layer DVD (4.7–17 GB) and USB flash drives (typically 16 to 256 GB as of the writing of this book).
Incorrect
In a large corporation (or enterprise environment), tape backup such as Linear Tape-Open (LTO) or Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is the best media for backing up.
Incorrect Answers: LTO and DLT tapes have a large capacity, allowing for a huge amount of backup as compared to DVD and dual-layer DVD (4.7–17 GB) and USB flash drives (typically 16 to 256 GB as of the writing of this book).
Unattempted
In a large corporation (or enterprise environment), tape backup such as Linear Tape-Open (LTO) or Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is the best media for backing up.
Incorrect Answers: LTO and DLT tapes have a large capacity, allowing for a huge amount of backup as compared to DVD and dual-layer DVD (4.7–17 GB) and USB flash drives (typically 16 to 256 GB as of the writing of this book).
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
Which of the following tools should be used to determine why a computer fails to boot?
Correct
Use a power supply unit (PSU) tester to determine why a computer fails to boot. One of the culprits could be a faulty power supply.
Incorrect Answers: A cable tester checks network cables only to see if they are wired correctly and have continuity. Loopback plugs are used to test network cards and serial ports. The tone and probe kit is used to test phone lines and network connections for continuity. So, the rest of the answers are all tools that are used externally from the computer, whereas the PSU tester is the only one used inside the computer.
Incorrect
Use a power supply unit (PSU) tester to determine why a computer fails to boot. One of the culprits could be a faulty power supply.
Incorrect Answers: A cable tester checks network cables only to see if they are wired correctly and have continuity. Loopback plugs are used to test network cards and serial ports. The tone and probe kit is used to test phone lines and network connections for continuity. So, the rest of the answers are all tools that are used externally from the computer, whereas the PSU tester is the only one used inside the computer.
Unattempted
Use a power supply unit (PSU) tester to determine why a computer fails to boot. One of the culprits could be a faulty power supply.
Incorrect Answers: A cable tester checks network cables only to see if they are wired correctly and have continuity. Loopback plugs are used to test network cards and serial ports. The tone and probe kit is used to test phone lines and network connections for continuity. So, the rest of the answers are all tools that are used externally from the computer, whereas the PSU tester is the only one used inside the computer.
Question 37 of 60
37. Question
Which type of partition should an operating system be installed to?
Correct
Primary partitions are the first partitions created on a drive. An OS should always be installed to a primary partition, but before you install the OS, you should set the primary partition to active. If you are installing to a new hard drive, Windows will automatically set the partition to active for you. A Master Boot Record (MBR)-based hard drive can have four primary partitions maximum, each with its own drive letter.
Incorrect Answers: If you need to subdivide the hard drive further, you can also use an extended partition, which is then broken up into logical drives. A GUID Partition Table (GPT)-based hard drive is not limited to this number; it can have up to 128 primary partitions. Dynamic refers to a dynamic drive; if you want to resize partitions, you have to convert the drive to dynamic in Disk Management. By the way, any drive in Windows that has a drive letter is known as a volume.
Incorrect
Primary partitions are the first partitions created on a drive. An OS should always be installed to a primary partition, but before you install the OS, you should set the primary partition to active. If you are installing to a new hard drive, Windows will automatically set the partition to active for you. A Master Boot Record (MBR)-based hard drive can have four primary partitions maximum, each with its own drive letter.
Incorrect Answers: If you need to subdivide the hard drive further, you can also use an extended partition, which is then broken up into logical drives. A GUID Partition Table (GPT)-based hard drive is not limited to this number; it can have up to 128 primary partitions. Dynamic refers to a dynamic drive; if you want to resize partitions, you have to convert the drive to dynamic in Disk Management. By the way, any drive in Windows that has a drive letter is known as a volume.
Unattempted
Primary partitions are the first partitions created on a drive. An OS should always be installed to a primary partition, but before you install the OS, you should set the primary partition to active. If you are installing to a new hard drive, Windows will automatically set the partition to active for you. A Master Boot Record (MBR)-based hard drive can have four primary partitions maximum, each with its own drive letter.
Incorrect Answers: If you need to subdivide the hard drive further, you can also use an extended partition, which is then broken up into logical drives. A GUID Partition Table (GPT)-based hard drive is not limited to this number; it can have up to 128 primary partitions. Dynamic refers to a dynamic drive; if you want to resize partitions, you have to convert the drive to dynamic in Disk Management. By the way, any drive in Windows that has a drive letter is known as a volume.
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
A user’s hard drive seems very slow in its reaction time when opening applications. Which of the following statements best describes the most likely cause of this?
Correct
The drive is fragmented. This is why it is very slow in its reaction time. It’s also possible that the OS is infected with a virus. You should analyze and defragment the drive and run an AV sweep of the system.
Incorrect Answers: If a drive is not seen by Windows, it might have to be initialized; this can happen when you add a second drive to a system that already has Windows installed. Surplus temporary files might slow down the login process but shouldn’t slow the hard drive when opening applications. You can remove them with the Disk Cleanup program or with third-party applications. If the hard drive’s SATA data connector were loose, the drive should not be able to access applications. In fact, you would probably get a message that says “Missing OS” or something to that effect.
Incorrect
The drive is fragmented. This is why it is very slow in its reaction time. It’s also possible that the OS is infected with a virus. You should analyze and defragment the drive and run an AV sweep of the system.
Incorrect Answers: If a drive is not seen by Windows, it might have to be initialized; this can happen when you add a second drive to a system that already has Windows installed. Surplus temporary files might slow down the login process but shouldn’t slow the hard drive when opening applications. You can remove them with the Disk Cleanup program or with third-party applications. If the hard drive’s SATA data connector were loose, the drive should not be able to access applications. In fact, you would probably get a message that says “Missing OS” or something to that effect.
Unattempted
The drive is fragmented. This is why it is very slow in its reaction time. It’s also possible that the OS is infected with a virus. You should analyze and defragment the drive and run an AV sweep of the system.
Incorrect Answers: If a drive is not seen by Windows, it might have to be initialized; this can happen when you add a second drive to a system that already has Windows installed. Surplus temporary files might slow down the login process but shouldn’t slow the hard drive when opening applications. You can remove them with the Disk Cleanup program or with third-party applications. If the hard drive’s SATA data connector were loose, the drive should not be able to access applications. In fact, you would probably get a message that says “Missing OS” or something to that effect.
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
A computer is responding slowly, and the Windows Task Manager shows that spoolsv.exe is using 95 percent of system resources. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
Correct
The printing subsystem is most likely failing for one of a variety of reasons. The first solution is to terminate spoolsv.exe (which is the Print Spooler service) in the Task Manager or in the Command Prompt with the taskkill command. Then restart the computer. If that approach doesn’t work, the system may have to be repaired, restored, or modified in the Registry (which could be an in-depth process). It is also possible that a virus has compromised the system. There are viruses that are also called spoolsv.exe; a quick sweep of the system folders with AV software should uncover this…hopefully.
Incorrect Answers: If Windows Update was running, it should not take up that many resources—not nearly so. FYI, the executable for that is wuauclt.exe. HyperThreading can be disabled in the BIOS/UEFI on some systems. This should have no effect on the system’s ability to multitask, though, and multiple processes should be able to run simultaneously without a problem.
Incorrect
The printing subsystem is most likely failing for one of a variety of reasons. The first solution is to terminate spoolsv.exe (which is the Print Spooler service) in the Task Manager or in the Command Prompt with the taskkill command. Then restart the computer. If that approach doesn’t work, the system may have to be repaired, restored, or modified in the Registry (which could be an in-depth process). It is also possible that a virus has compromised the system. There are viruses that are also called spoolsv.exe; a quick sweep of the system folders with AV software should uncover this…hopefully.
Incorrect Answers: If Windows Update was running, it should not take up that many resources—not nearly so. FYI, the executable for that is wuauclt.exe. HyperThreading can be disabled in the BIOS/UEFI on some systems. This should have no effect on the system’s ability to multitask, though, and multiple processes should be able to run simultaneously without a problem.
Unattempted
The printing subsystem is most likely failing for one of a variety of reasons. The first solution is to terminate spoolsv.exe (which is the Print Spooler service) in the Task Manager or in the Command Prompt with the taskkill command. Then restart the computer. If that approach doesn’t work, the system may have to be repaired, restored, or modified in the Registry (which could be an in-depth process). It is also possible that a virus has compromised the system. There are viruses that are also called spoolsv.exe; a quick sweep of the system folders with AV software should uncover this…hopefully.
Incorrect Answers: If Windows Update was running, it should not take up that many resources—not nearly so. FYI, the executable for that is wuauclt.exe. HyperThreading can be disabled in the BIOS/UEFI on some systems. This should have no effect on the system’s ability to multitask, though, and multiple processes should be able to run simultaneously without a problem.
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
Which of the following could cause the POST to fail? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
The CPU and memory need to be installed properly for the POST to run (and to pass).
Incorrect Answers: The hard drive and optical drive may or may not be installed properly, but they are not necessary for the POST to complete. If the power supply is defective, the system simply will not boot and will not even get to the POST stage.
Incorrect
The CPU and memory need to be installed properly for the POST to run (and to pass).
Incorrect Answers: The hard drive and optical drive may or may not be installed properly, but they are not necessary for the POST to complete. If the power supply is defective, the system simply will not boot and will not even get to the POST stage.
Unattempted
The CPU and memory need to be installed properly for the POST to run (and to pass).
Incorrect Answers: The hard drive and optical drive may or may not be installed properly, but they are not necessary for the POST to complete. If the power supply is defective, the system simply will not boot and will not even get to the POST stage.
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
The organization you work for has three locations within a city that need to be networked together. The network requirement for all three locations is a minimum data throughput of 1 Gbps. Which of the following network types are most likely to be used for internal office and office-to-office communications? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
The organization will most likely use localarea networks (LAN) for each office and a metropolitanarea network (MAN) to connect the three networks. The LANs meet the requirements for each office’s internal communications. Most LANs operate at 1 Gbps or faster. The MAN meets the requirement for the connection between the offices within the city. A MAN is the right choice because it can harness the power of fiber-optic cables and other technologies that already exist in the city limits and provide for 1 Gbps or more throughput.
Incorrect Answers: A personal-area network (PAN) is a group of Bluetooth devices that communicate with each other. A wide-area network (WAN) is one that connects multiple LANs but usually over longer distances—often between cities. Also, a WAN does not typically have as much data throughput as a MAN. A storage-area network (SAN) is a group of storage arrays, network-attached storage (NAS) devices, and so on. It could be that the offices might use one, but just having a SAN does not meet the throughput requirements; plus, a SAN can be within a LAN, cross over to a MAN, or move beyond to a WAN, so it is somewhat vague when considering the scenario. A wireless local-area network (WLAN) might be incorporated as well, but as of the writing of this book (2019), you’d be hard-pressed to get it to meet the 1 Gbps data throughput requirement for all computers.
Incorrect
The organization will most likely use localarea networks (LAN) for each office and a metropolitanarea network (MAN) to connect the three networks. The LANs meet the requirements for each office’s internal communications. Most LANs operate at 1 Gbps or faster. The MAN meets the requirement for the connection between the offices within the city. A MAN is the right choice because it can harness the power of fiber-optic cables and other technologies that already exist in the city limits and provide for 1 Gbps or more throughput.
Incorrect Answers: A personal-area network (PAN) is a group of Bluetooth devices that communicate with each other. A wide-area network (WAN) is one that connects multiple LANs but usually over longer distances—often between cities. Also, a WAN does not typically have as much data throughput as a MAN. A storage-area network (SAN) is a group of storage arrays, network-attached storage (NAS) devices, and so on. It could be that the offices might use one, but just having a SAN does not meet the throughput requirements; plus, a SAN can be within a LAN, cross over to a MAN, or move beyond to a WAN, so it is somewhat vague when considering the scenario. A wireless local-area network (WLAN) might be incorporated as well, but as of the writing of this book (2019), you’d be hard-pressed to get it to meet the 1 Gbps data throughput requirement for all computers.
Unattempted
The organization will most likely use localarea networks (LAN) for each office and a metropolitanarea network (MAN) to connect the three networks. The LANs meet the requirements for each office’s internal communications. Most LANs operate at 1 Gbps or faster. The MAN meets the requirement for the connection between the offices within the city. A MAN is the right choice because it can harness the power of fiber-optic cables and other technologies that already exist in the city limits and provide for 1 Gbps or more throughput.
Incorrect Answers: A personal-area network (PAN) is a group of Bluetooth devices that communicate with each other. A wide-area network (WAN) is one that connects multiple LANs but usually over longer distances—often between cities. Also, a WAN does not typically have as much data throughput as a MAN. A storage-area network (SAN) is a group of storage arrays, network-attached storage (NAS) devices, and so on. It could be that the offices might use one, but just having a SAN does not meet the throughput requirements; plus, a SAN can be within a LAN, cross over to a MAN, or move beyond to a WAN, so it is somewhat vague when considering the scenario. A wireless local-area network (WLAN) might be incorporated as well, but as of the writing of this book (2019), you’d be hard-pressed to get it to meet the 1 Gbps data throughput requirement for all computers.
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
You are tasked with plugging a network patch cable into an inactive drop within a user’s cubicle. Which of the following tools enables you to find the correct network drop in the wiring closet so that you can make the port hot?
Correct
The tone and probe kit allows you to find the network drop in the wiring closet. Here’s how this works: you take the tone generator portion of the tone and probe kit and connect it via RJ45 to the network port in the user’s cubicle. Then you switch it on so that it creates tone. Then you go to the wiring closet (or network room or server room) and use the probe (an inductive amplifier) to find the tone. You do this by pressing the probe against each of the cables. This is an excellent method when there are dozens, or hundreds, of cables in the wiring closet. When you find the right cable, plug it into the patch panel or directly to a network switch. When you return to the user’s cubicle, the RJ45 jack should be hot, meaning it can be used to send and receive data.
Incorrect Answers: A PSU tester tests the power supply of a computer. A multimeter can test any wire’s voltage or AC outlets. Cable tester is somewhat of a vague term, but it usually means either a network patch cable tester or a LAN tester, which checks the individual wires of longer network cable runs.
Incorrect
The tone and probe kit allows you to find the network drop in the wiring closet. Here’s how this works: you take the tone generator portion of the tone and probe kit and connect it via RJ45 to the network port in the user’s cubicle. Then you switch it on so that it creates tone. Then you go to the wiring closet (or network room or server room) and use the probe (an inductive amplifier) to find the tone. You do this by pressing the probe against each of the cables. This is an excellent method when there are dozens, or hundreds, of cables in the wiring closet. When you find the right cable, plug it into the patch panel or directly to a network switch. When you return to the user’s cubicle, the RJ45 jack should be hot, meaning it can be used to send and receive data.
Incorrect Answers: A PSU tester tests the power supply of a computer. A multimeter can test any wire’s voltage or AC outlets. Cable tester is somewhat of a vague term, but it usually means either a network patch cable tester or a LAN tester, which checks the individual wires of longer network cable runs.
Unattempted
The tone and probe kit allows you to find the network drop in the wiring closet. Here’s how this works: you take the tone generator portion of the tone and probe kit and connect it via RJ45 to the network port in the user’s cubicle. Then you switch it on so that it creates tone. Then you go to the wiring closet (or network room or server room) and use the probe (an inductive amplifier) to find the tone. You do this by pressing the probe against each of the cables. This is an excellent method when there are dozens, or hundreds, of cables in the wiring closet. When you find the right cable, plug it into the patch panel or directly to a network switch. When you return to the user’s cubicle, the RJ45 jack should be hot, meaning it can be used to send and receive data.
Incorrect Answers: A PSU tester tests the power supply of a computer. A multimeter can test any wire’s voltage or AC outlets. Cable tester is somewhat of a vague term, but it usually means either a network patch cable tester or a LAN tester, which checks the individual wires of longer network cable runs.
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
Which of the following tools enables you to find out how much memory a particular application is using?
Correct
The Task Manager enables you, via a click of the Processes tab, to view all current running processes and see how much memory each is using. You can open the Task Manager by right-clicking the Taskbar and selecting it, by going to Run and typing taskmgr, by pressing Ctrl+Shift+Esc, or by pressing Ctrl+Alt+Del and selecting Task Manager.
Incorrect Answers: Msconfig is a utility in Windows that allows you to enable and disable services and boot Windows in different modes. Chkdsk is a Command Prompt utility that searches for errors and fixes them (with the /F or /R switches). The System Information tool gives a summary of hardware resources, components, and the software environment; you can open it by going to Run and typing msinfo32.
Incorrect
The Task Manager enables you, via a click of the Processes tab, to view all current running processes and see how much memory each is using. You can open the Task Manager by right-clicking the Taskbar and selecting it, by going to Run and typing taskmgr, by pressing Ctrl+Shift+Esc, or by pressing Ctrl+Alt+Del and selecting Task Manager.
Incorrect Answers: Msconfig is a utility in Windows that allows you to enable and disable services and boot Windows in different modes. Chkdsk is a Command Prompt utility that searches for errors and fixes them (with the /F or /R switches). The System Information tool gives a summary of hardware resources, components, and the software environment; you can open it by going to Run and typing msinfo32.
Unattempted
The Task Manager enables you, via a click of the Processes tab, to view all current running processes and see how much memory each is using. You can open the Task Manager by right-clicking the Taskbar and selecting it, by going to Run and typing taskmgr, by pressing Ctrl+Shift+Esc, or by pressing Ctrl+Alt+Del and selecting Task Manager.
Incorrect Answers: Msconfig is a utility in Windows that allows you to enable and disable services and boot Windows in different modes. Chkdsk is a Command Prompt utility that searches for errors and fixes them (with the /F or /R switches). The System Information tool gives a summary of hardware resources, components, and the software environment; you can open it by going to Run and typing msinfo32.
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
Which of the following actions will not secure a functioning computer workstation?
Correct
Sanitizing the hard drive does not secure a computer workstation. It does, however, prevent anyone from accessing data on the drive, but it also ensures the computer workstation won’t be functional anymore. A data sanitization method is the specific way in which a data destruction program or file shredder overwrites the data on a hard drive or other storage device.
Incorrect Answers: Setting strong passwords, changing default usernames, and disabling the guest account are all ways of securing a computer workstation.
Incorrect
Sanitizing the hard drive does not secure a computer workstation. It does, however, prevent anyone from accessing data on the drive, but it also ensures the computer workstation won’t be functional anymore. A data sanitization method is the specific way in which a data destruction program or file shredder overwrites the data on a hard drive or other storage device.
Incorrect Answers: Setting strong passwords, changing default usernames, and disabling the guest account are all ways of securing a computer workstation.
Unattempted
Sanitizing the hard drive does not secure a computer workstation. It does, however, prevent anyone from accessing data on the drive, but it also ensures the computer workstation won’t be functional anymore. A data sanitization method is the specific way in which a data destruction program or file shredder overwrites the data on a hard drive or other storage device.
Incorrect Answers: Setting strong passwords, changing default usernames, and disabling the guest account are all ways of securing a computer workstation.
Question 45 of 60
45. Question
Which of the following descriptions classifies the protocol IMAP?
Correct
IMAP is the Internet Message Access Protocol, which allows an email client to access email on a remote mail server. Generally, the email client software leaves the messages on the server until the user specifically deletes them. So, the user can selectively download messages. This allows multiple users to manage the same mailbox.
Incorrect Answers: Real-time messaging can be accomplished by using instant messaging and chat programs. IMAP, like POP3, allows users to download or receive messages, but it does not send messages; a protocol such as SMTP would be used to send mail. IMAP, like POP3, authenticates the user, but again not for sending email—just when receiving email.
Incorrect
IMAP is the Internet Message Access Protocol, which allows an email client to access email on a remote mail server. Generally, the email client software leaves the messages on the server until the user specifically deletes them. So, the user can selectively download messages. This allows multiple users to manage the same mailbox.
Incorrect Answers: Real-time messaging can be accomplished by using instant messaging and chat programs. IMAP, like POP3, allows users to download or receive messages, but it does not send messages; a protocol such as SMTP would be used to send mail. IMAP, like POP3, authenticates the user, but again not for sending email—just when receiving email.
Unattempted
IMAP is the Internet Message Access Protocol, which allows an email client to access email on a remote mail server. Generally, the email client software leaves the messages on the server until the user specifically deletes them. So, the user can selectively download messages. This allows multiple users to manage the same mailbox.
Incorrect Answers: Real-time messaging can be accomplished by using instant messaging and chat programs. IMAP, like POP3, allows users to download or receive messages, but it does not send messages; a protocol such as SMTP would be used to send mail. IMAP, like POP3, authenticates the user, but again not for sending email—just when receiving email.
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
What is the minimum number of hard drives necessary to implement RAID 5?
Correct
Because RAID 5 uses striping with parity, a third disk is needed. You can have more than three disks as well.
Incorrect Answers: Two disks are enough for plain RAID 0 striping, so two is the exact number you need for RAID 1 mirroring. RAID 6 and RAID 10 require four disks.
Incorrect
Because RAID 5 uses striping with parity, a third disk is needed. You can have more than three disks as well.
Incorrect Answers: Two disks are enough for plain RAID 0 striping, so two is the exact number you need for RAID 1 mirroring. RAID 6 and RAID 10 require four disks.
Unattempted
Because RAID 5 uses striping with parity, a third disk is needed. You can have more than three disks as well.
Incorrect Answers: Two disks are enough for plain RAID 0 striping, so two is the exact number you need for RAID 1 mirroring. RAID 6 and RAID 10 require four disks.
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
Which of the following storage technologies is used by hard disk drives?
Correct
Hard disk drives (HDDs) are magnetic disks. These are the type with moving parts, as opposed to solid-state drives (SSDs) that have no moving parts.
Incorrect Answers: There are optical hard drives, but they are rare; optical disc drives are commonly implemented as CD, DVD, or Blu-ray drives. Impact refers to a type of printer, such as the dot-matrix or the daisywheel printer. Solid-state hard drives do not have a disk and therefore have no moving parts, are quiet, and work as fast as (if not faster than) traditional magnetic hard drives. However, they are far more expensive than magnetic-based hard disk drives.
Incorrect
Hard disk drives (HDDs) are magnetic disks. These are the type with moving parts, as opposed to solid-state drives (SSDs) that have no moving parts.
Incorrect Answers: There are optical hard drives, but they are rare; optical disc drives are commonly implemented as CD, DVD, or Blu-ray drives. Impact refers to a type of printer, such as the dot-matrix or the daisywheel printer. Solid-state hard drives do not have a disk and therefore have no moving parts, are quiet, and work as fast as (if not faster than) traditional magnetic hard drives. However, they are far more expensive than magnetic-based hard disk drives.
Unattempted
Hard disk drives (HDDs) are magnetic disks. These are the type with moving parts, as opposed to solid-state drives (SSDs) that have no moving parts.
Incorrect Answers: There are optical hard drives, but they are rare; optical disc drives are commonly implemented as CD, DVD, or Blu-ray drives. Impact refers to a type of printer, such as the dot-matrix or the daisywheel printer. Solid-state hard drives do not have a disk and therefore have no moving parts, are quiet, and work as fast as (if not faster than) traditional magnetic hard drives. However, they are far more expensive than magnetic-based hard disk drives.
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
Which of the following is indicated by repetitive flashing lights on the keyboard during POST?
Correct
Most likely, repetitive flashing lights on a keyboard indicate the presence of a hardware error, probably internal to the computer. If nothing comes up on the display, and all you have to go by are flashing lights on the keyboard, you can probably ascertain that the POST has failed and that the problem lies within the big four (as I like to call them): CPU, RAM, video, or motherboard.
Incorrect Answers: Software errors can’t occur until the operating system attempts to boot, and without the POST finishing successfully, that won’t happen. Passwords are required when you see a repetitive flashing light on the screen, not on the keyboard—and even then, only if you are attempting to access the BIOS (or UEFI) or if someone configured a user password in the BIOS. External peripherals don’t need to post properly for the computer to boot to the OS. Even the keyboard isn’t necessary. The POST is more interested in the guts of the computer, especially the big four and the hard drive.
Incorrect
Most likely, repetitive flashing lights on a keyboard indicate the presence of a hardware error, probably internal to the computer. If nothing comes up on the display, and all you have to go by are flashing lights on the keyboard, you can probably ascertain that the POST has failed and that the problem lies within the big four (as I like to call them): CPU, RAM, video, or motherboard.
Incorrect Answers: Software errors can’t occur until the operating system attempts to boot, and without the POST finishing successfully, that won’t happen. Passwords are required when you see a repetitive flashing light on the screen, not on the keyboard—and even then, only if you are attempting to access the BIOS (or UEFI) or if someone configured a user password in the BIOS. External peripherals don’t need to post properly for the computer to boot to the OS. Even the keyboard isn’t necessary. The POST is more interested in the guts of the computer, especially the big four and the hard drive.
Unattempted
Most likely, repetitive flashing lights on a keyboard indicate the presence of a hardware error, probably internal to the computer. If nothing comes up on the display, and all you have to go by are flashing lights on the keyboard, you can probably ascertain that the POST has failed and that the problem lies within the big four (as I like to call them): CPU, RAM, video, or motherboard.
Incorrect Answers: Software errors can’t occur until the operating system attempts to boot, and without the POST finishing successfully, that won’t happen. Passwords are required when you see a repetitive flashing light on the screen, not on the keyboard—and even then, only if you are attempting to access the BIOS (or UEFI) or if someone configured a user password in the BIOS. External peripherals don’t need to post properly for the computer to boot to the OS. Even the keyboard isn’t necessary. The POST is more interested in the guts of the computer, especially the big four and the hard drive.
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
Which of the following features is used to both start and stop services? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
You can start, stop, and restart services within Computer Management > Services and Applications > Services. From there, right-click the service in question and configure it as you wish. You can also open Services by going to the Run prompt and typing services.msc. The Task Manager can also be used to start and stop services, as well as to analyze the performance of the CPU, RAM, and the networking connections. You can also start and stop services with the net start / net stop and sc start / sc stop commands.
Incorrect Answers: Performance Monitor analyzes the computer in much more depth than the Task Manager. The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console, which is the index that can store other console windows such as Computer Management. Among other things, Msconfig is used to enable/disable services, but not to start them.
Incorrect
You can start, stop, and restart services within Computer Management > Services and Applications > Services. From there, right-click the service in question and configure it as you wish. You can also open Services by going to the Run prompt and typing services.msc. The Task Manager can also be used to start and stop services, as well as to analyze the performance of the CPU, RAM, and the networking connections. You can also start and stop services with the net start / net stop and sc start / sc stop commands.
Incorrect Answers: Performance Monitor analyzes the computer in much more depth than the Task Manager. The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console, which is the index that can store other console windows such as Computer Management. Among other things, Msconfig is used to enable/disable services, but not to start them.
Unattempted
You can start, stop, and restart services within Computer Management > Services and Applications > Services. From there, right-click the service in question and configure it as you wish. You can also open Services by going to the Run prompt and typing services.msc. The Task Manager can also be used to start and stop services, as well as to analyze the performance of the CPU, RAM, and the networking connections. You can also start and stop services with the net start / net stop and sc start / sc stop commands.
Incorrect Answers: Performance Monitor analyzes the computer in much more depth than the Task Manager. The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console, which is the index that can store other console windows such as Computer Management. Among other things, Msconfig is used to enable/disable services, but not to start them.
Question 50 of 60
50. Question
Which of the following statements best describes how to restart the Print Spooler service? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
In the command line, this service is simply known as Spooler. Type net stop spooler and net start spooler to restart the service. In Computer Management, the Print Spooler service is found in Services and Applications > Services. Or you could open the Run prompt and type services.msc. From there, you can start, stop, pause, resume, or restart services and also set their Startup type to Automatic, Manual, or Disabled.
Incorrect Answers: When stopping a service in the Command Prompt (or PowerShell), remember to use the command-line name, not the name used in the GUI. In this case, the command-line name is spooler, whereas the GUI-based name is Print Spooler. The Event Viewer is used to view and analyze log files.
Incorrect
In the command line, this service is simply known as Spooler. Type net stop spooler and net start spooler to restart the service. In Computer Management, the Print Spooler service is found in Services and Applications > Services. Or you could open the Run prompt and type services.msc. From there, you can start, stop, pause, resume, or restart services and also set their Startup type to Automatic, Manual, or Disabled.
Incorrect Answers: When stopping a service in the Command Prompt (or PowerShell), remember to use the command-line name, not the name used in the GUI. In this case, the command-line name is spooler, whereas the GUI-based name is Print Spooler. The Event Viewer is used to view and analyze log files.
Unattempted
In the command line, this service is simply known as Spooler. Type net stop spooler and net start spooler to restart the service. In Computer Management, the Print Spooler service is found in Services and Applications > Services. Or you could open the Run prompt and type services.msc. From there, you can start, stop, pause, resume, or restart services and also set their Startup type to Automatic, Manual, or Disabled.
Incorrect Answers: When stopping a service in the Command Prompt (or PowerShell), remember to use the command-line name, not the name used in the GUI. In this case, the command-line name is spooler, whereas the GUI-based name is Print Spooler. The Event Viewer is used to view and analyze log files.
Question 51 of 60
51. Question
You have been contracted to repair a computer at an organization that has strict rules about information leaving the premises. While troubleshooting the computer, you determine that the computer should be taken offsite to complete the repair. Which of the following should you do next?
Correct
You should check the company’s policies and procedures first (or inquire with a compliance officer). If there is confidential or proprietary information that should not leave the premises (under normal circumstances), the company guidelines should define what to do in a repair situation.
Incorrect Answers: If the computer ultimately does have to leave the premises, you will probably have to obtain authorization and signatures from one or more people who work at the company; this goes beyond your manager, who works at your company, not the company you have been contracted to help. You should never delete any information from computers that you work on unless, of course, doing so is required as part of a hard drive scrub or hard drive replacement, and the data has been backed up. Removing the hard drive is not enough; there could be data elsewhere in the computer. Also, repairing a system without a hard drive can, in many cases, prove to be difficult.
Incorrect
You should check the company’s policies and procedures first (or inquire with a compliance officer). If there is confidential or proprietary information that should not leave the premises (under normal circumstances), the company guidelines should define what to do in a repair situation.
Incorrect Answers: If the computer ultimately does have to leave the premises, you will probably have to obtain authorization and signatures from one or more people who work at the company; this goes beyond your manager, who works at your company, not the company you have been contracted to help. You should never delete any information from computers that you work on unless, of course, doing so is required as part of a hard drive scrub or hard drive replacement, and the data has been backed up. Removing the hard drive is not enough; there could be data elsewhere in the computer. Also, repairing a system without a hard drive can, in many cases, prove to be difficult.
Unattempted
You should check the company’s policies and procedures first (or inquire with a compliance officer). If there is confidential or proprietary information that should not leave the premises (under normal circumstances), the company guidelines should define what to do in a repair situation.
Incorrect Answers: If the computer ultimately does have to leave the premises, you will probably have to obtain authorization and signatures from one or more people who work at the company; this goes beyond your manager, who works at your company, not the company you have been contracted to help. You should never delete any information from computers that you work on unless, of course, doing so is required as part of a hard drive scrub or hard drive replacement, and the data has been backed up. Removing the hard drive is not enough; there could be data elsewhere in the computer. Also, repairing a system without a hard drive can, in many cases, prove to be difficult.
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
Which of the following are ports you might find on smartphones and tablets? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
Mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets commonly incorporate ports such as USB-C (and micro USB) and Apple’s Lightning connector.
Incorrect Answers: eSATA (used by external storage devices) and DVI (used by video cards) are commonly found on PCs.
Incorrect
Mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets commonly incorporate ports such as USB-C (and micro USB) and Apple’s Lightning connector.
Incorrect Answers: eSATA (used by external storage devices) and DVI (used by video cards) are commonly found on PCs.
Unattempted
Mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets commonly incorporate ports such as USB-C (and micro USB) and Apple’s Lightning connector.
Incorrect Answers: eSATA (used by external storage devices) and DVI (used by video cards) are commonly found on PCs.
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
On which type of computer is RAM the most important?
Correct
RAM is more essential to the virtualization workstation than any of the other types of custom PCs listed. Virtual operating systems (virtual machines or VMs) require a lot of RAM to run, much more than any other application. Plus, a virtualization workstation often has more than one virtual machine running, increasing its need for RAM even further.
Incorrect Answers: A gaming PC’s biggest requirements are the CPU and the video card, followed by an SSD. Audio/video editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards, large and fast hard drives, and dual monitors. A standard thick client is a basic PC running typical applications that meets recommended requirements for the selected OS.
Incorrect
RAM is more essential to the virtualization workstation than any of the other types of custom PCs listed. Virtual operating systems (virtual machines or VMs) require a lot of RAM to run, much more than any other application. Plus, a virtualization workstation often has more than one virtual machine running, increasing its need for RAM even further.
Incorrect Answers: A gaming PC’s biggest requirements are the CPU and the video card, followed by an SSD. Audio/video editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards, large and fast hard drives, and dual monitors. A standard thick client is a basic PC running typical applications that meets recommended requirements for the selected OS.
Unattempted
RAM is more essential to the virtualization workstation than any of the other types of custom PCs listed. Virtual operating systems (virtual machines or VMs) require a lot of RAM to run, much more than any other application. Plus, a virtualization workstation often has more than one virtual machine running, increasing its need for RAM even further.
Incorrect Answers: A gaming PC’s biggest requirements are the CPU and the video card, followed by an SSD. Audio/video editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards, large and fast hard drives, and dual monitors. A standard thick client is a basic PC running typical applications that meets recommended requirements for the selected OS.
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
Which type of cache memory is shared by all cores of a CPU?
Correct
L3 cache is shared by all of the cores of the CPU.
Incorrect Answers: L1 cache is built into the CPU. L2 cache is built onto the CPU; it is also known as on-die. DRAM is the memory modules you install into the slots in the motherboard. DRAM is not cache memory. Some people consider DRAM to be L4 cache, but there is an actual CPU cache known as L4 used by Xeon and other high-end processors.
Incorrect
L3 cache is shared by all of the cores of the CPU.
Incorrect Answers: L1 cache is built into the CPU. L2 cache is built onto the CPU; it is also known as on-die. DRAM is the memory modules you install into the slots in the motherboard. DRAM is not cache memory. Some people consider DRAM to be L4 cache, but there is an actual CPU cache known as L4 used by Xeon and other high-end processors.
Unattempted
L3 cache is shared by all of the cores of the CPU.
Incorrect Answers: L1 cache is built into the CPU. L2 cache is built onto the CPU; it is also known as on-die. DRAM is the memory modules you install into the slots in the motherboard. DRAM is not cache memory. Some people consider DRAM to be L4 cache, but there is an actual CPU cache known as L4 used by Xeon and other high-end processors.
Question 55 of 60
55. Question
Which of the following user account permissions are needed to install device drivers on Windows?
Correct
The administrator is the only account level that can install device drivers.
Incorrect Answers: Standard user, and especially guest, accounts cannot install drivers or programs. The Power Users group is an older group from the Windows XP days that was carried over to newer versions of Windows for application compatibility, but it has no real power in those operating systems.
Incorrect
The administrator is the only account level that can install device drivers.
Incorrect Answers: Standard user, and especially guest, accounts cannot install drivers or programs. The Power Users group is an older group from the Windows XP days that was carried over to newer versions of Windows for application compatibility, but it has no real power in those operating systems.
Unattempted
The administrator is the only account level that can install device drivers.
Incorrect Answers: Standard user, and especially guest, accounts cannot install drivers or programs. The Power Users group is an older group from the Windows XP days that was carried over to newer versions of Windows for application compatibility, but it has no real power in those operating systems.
Question 56 of 60
56. Question
Where is Registry hive data stored?
Correct
Remember that %systemroot% is a variable. It takes the place of whatever folder contains the operating system. This is usually Windows. For example, if you were to run a default installation of Windows, the path to the Registry hives would be C:\Windows\System32\Config. The main hives are SAM, SECURITY, SOFTWARE, SYSTEM, and DEFAULT. You can access and configure them by opening the Registry Editor (Run > regedit.exe) and opening the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE subtree. Other hive information is stored in the user profile folders.
Incorrect Answers: The other locations are incorrect. The Windows folder is the %systemroot%, so the paths that include \%systemroot%\Windows don’t make any sense. The System32 folder houses all of the 64-bit protected system files (and many applications) for Windows.
Incorrect
Remember that %systemroot% is a variable. It takes the place of whatever folder contains the operating system. This is usually Windows. For example, if you were to run a default installation of Windows, the path to the Registry hives would be C:\Windows\System32\Config. The main hives are SAM, SECURITY, SOFTWARE, SYSTEM, and DEFAULT. You can access and configure them by opening the Registry Editor (Run > regedit.exe) and opening the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE subtree. Other hive information is stored in the user profile folders.
Incorrect Answers: The other locations are incorrect. The Windows folder is the %systemroot%, so the paths that include \%systemroot%\Windows don’t make any sense. The System32 folder houses all of the 64-bit protected system files (and many applications) for Windows.
Unattempted
Remember that %systemroot% is a variable. It takes the place of whatever folder contains the operating system. This is usually Windows. For example, if you were to run a default installation of Windows, the path to the Registry hives would be C:\Windows\System32\Config. The main hives are SAM, SECURITY, SOFTWARE, SYSTEM, and DEFAULT. You can access and configure them by opening the Registry Editor (Run > regedit.exe) and opening the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE subtree. Other hive information is stored in the user profile folders.
Incorrect Answers: The other locations are incorrect. The Windows folder is the %systemroot%, so the paths that include \%systemroot%\Windows don’t make any sense. The System32 folder houses all of the 64-bit protected system files (and many applications) for Windows.
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
Which of the following is not a video port?
Correct
S/PDIF is not a video port. It stands for Sony/Philips digital interface format—a digital audio interconnect that can be used with fiber-optic TOSLINK connectors or coaxial RCA connectors.
Incorrect Answers: DVI is the Digital Visual Interface, one of the most common outputs on PC video cards. HDMI is the High-Definition Multimedia Interface, another common video standard, especially in laptops, home theaters, and home theater PCs (HTPCs). DisplayPort is another video standard used by some PCs that has the ability to display high resolutions.
Incorrect
S/PDIF is not a video port. It stands for Sony/Philips digital interface format—a digital audio interconnect that can be used with fiber-optic TOSLINK connectors or coaxial RCA connectors.
Incorrect Answers: DVI is the Digital Visual Interface, one of the most common outputs on PC video cards. HDMI is the High-Definition Multimedia Interface, another common video standard, especially in laptops, home theaters, and home theater PCs (HTPCs). DisplayPort is another video standard used by some PCs that has the ability to display high resolutions.
Unattempted
S/PDIF is not a video port. It stands for Sony/Philips digital interface format—a digital audio interconnect that can be used with fiber-optic TOSLINK connectors or coaxial RCA connectors.
Incorrect Answers: DVI is the Digital Visual Interface, one of the most common outputs on PC video cards. HDMI is the High-Definition Multimedia Interface, another common video standard, especially in laptops, home theaters, and home theater PCs (HTPCs). DisplayPort is another video standard used by some PCs that has the ability to display high resolutions.
Question 58 of 60
58. Question
A client brings in a printer that is giving a paper-feed error. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Correct
Paper-feed errors are often caused by the pickup rollers, which are in charge of feeding the paper into the printer.
Incorrect Answers: If a separation pad fails, it might cause more than one sheet of paper to be entered into the printer. The developing rollers transfer ink to the imaging drum. The paper tray simply holds the paper. It should not cause paper-feed errors unless the constraining tabs are too tight.
Incorrect
Paper-feed errors are often caused by the pickup rollers, which are in charge of feeding the paper into the printer.
Incorrect Answers: If a separation pad fails, it might cause more than one sheet of paper to be entered into the printer. The developing rollers transfer ink to the imaging drum. The paper tray simply holds the paper. It should not cause paper-feed errors unless the constraining tabs are too tight.
Unattempted
Paper-feed errors are often caused by the pickup rollers, which are in charge of feeding the paper into the printer.
Incorrect Answers: If a separation pad fails, it might cause more than one sheet of paper to be entered into the printer. The developing rollers transfer ink to the imaging drum. The paper tray simply holds the paper. It should not cause paper-feed errors unless the constraining tabs are too tight.
Question 59 of 60
59. Question
Which technology calculates two independent sets of instructions simultaneously, simulating two CPUs?
Correct
Hyper-threading (for example, Intel HT) calculates two independent sets of instructions simultaneously, simulating two CPUs.
Incorrect Answers: HyperTransport is a high-speed link between various devices such as the CPU and northbridge on AMD systems. Turbo Boost is a basic form of overclocking that Intel allows with many of its processors. Multi-core is the technology in which a CPU physically contains two or more processor cores. Many CPU designs combine multi-core technology with hyperthreading to allow for even more processing.
Incorrect
Hyper-threading (for example, Intel HT) calculates two independent sets of instructions simultaneously, simulating two CPUs.
Incorrect Answers: HyperTransport is a high-speed link between various devices such as the CPU and northbridge on AMD systems. Turbo Boost is a basic form of overclocking that Intel allows with many of its processors. Multi-core is the technology in which a CPU physically contains two or more processor cores. Many CPU designs combine multi-core technology with hyperthreading to allow for even more processing.
Unattempted
Hyper-threading (for example, Intel HT) calculates two independent sets of instructions simultaneously, simulating two CPUs.
Incorrect Answers: HyperTransport is a high-speed link between various devices such as the CPU and northbridge on AMD systems. Turbo Boost is a basic form of overclocking that Intel allows with many of its processors. Multi-core is the technology in which a CPU physically contains two or more processor cores. Many CPU designs combine multi-core technology with hyperthreading to allow for even more processing.
Question 60 of 60
60. Question
Which of the following commands creates a new directory in the Windows Command Prompt?
Correct
MD is short for make directory and is the command to use when creating directories in the Command Prompt.
Incorrect Answers: CD is change directory. RD is remove directory, and SD, which deals with memory cards, is not a valid command in the Command Prompt.
Incorrect
MD is short for make directory and is the command to use when creating directories in the Command Prompt.
Incorrect Answers: CD is change directory. RD is remove directory, and SD, which deals with memory cards, is not a valid command in the Command Prompt.
Unattempted
MD is short for make directory and is the command to use when creating directories in the Command Prompt.
Incorrect Answers: CD is change directory. RD is remove directory, and SD, which deals with memory cards, is not a valid command in the Command Prompt.
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