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Review
Question 1 of 45
1. Question
Which of the following utilities can be used to view the startup programs?
Correct
Regedit can be used to view startup programs. This is the executable that opens the Registry Editor. A common place to find some of the startup programs is the path HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Wi ndows\CurrentVersion\Ru. Several other subkeys, mostly within the CurrentVersion, also house startup program information.
Incorrect Answers: Ipconfig shows the network configuration of all network adapters. Ping is used to test whether other computers on the network can respond to TCP/IP packets of information, thus proving they are functional. DxDiag is used to analyze video cards and the version of DirectX that is running.
Incorrect
Regedit can be used to view startup programs. This is the executable that opens the Registry Editor. A common place to find some of the startup programs is the path HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Wi ndows\CurrentVersion\Ru. Several other subkeys, mostly within the CurrentVersion, also house startup program information.
Incorrect Answers: Ipconfig shows the network configuration of all network adapters. Ping is used to test whether other computers on the network can respond to TCP/IP packets of information, thus proving they are functional. DxDiag is used to analyze video cards and the version of DirectX that is running.
Unattempted
Regedit can be used to view startup programs. This is the executable that opens the Registry Editor. A common place to find some of the startup programs is the path HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Wi ndows\CurrentVersion\Ru. Several other subkeys, mostly within the CurrentVersion, also house startup program information.
Incorrect Answers: Ipconfig shows the network configuration of all network adapters. Ping is used to test whether other computers on the network can respond to TCP/IP packets of information, thus proving they are functional. DxDiag is used to analyze video cards and the version of DirectX that is running.
Question 2 of 45
2. Question
Which of the following can be disabled to help prevent access to a wireless network?
Correct
To aid in preventing access to a wireless network, disable the SSID. But only do this when all computers have been connected. If more computers need to be connected later, they will have to connect manually, or the SSID will have to be reenabled.
Incorrect Answers: Although this is an okay security method, it won’t keep smart attackers out of your network. MAC filtering and WPA2 encryption do a much better job at that than disabling the SSID.
Incorrect
To aid in preventing access to a wireless network, disable the SSID. But only do this when all computers have been connected. If more computers need to be connected later, they will have to connect manually, or the SSID will have to be reenabled.
Incorrect Answers: Although this is an okay security method, it won’t keep smart attackers out of your network. MAC filtering and WPA2 encryption do a much better job at that than disabling the SSID.
Unattempted
To aid in preventing access to a wireless network, disable the SSID. But only do this when all computers have been connected. If more computers need to be connected later, they will have to connect manually, or the SSID will have to be reenabled.
Incorrect Answers: Although this is an okay security method, it won’t keep smart attackers out of your network. MAC filtering and WPA2 encryption do a much better job at that than disabling the SSID.
Question 3 of 45
3. Question
Which of the following are components of dealing with prohibited content? (Select the three best answers.)
Correct
When dealing with prohibited content, there will always be a first responder who is required to identify the issue, report through proper channels, and preserve data and possibly devices used. This person will be in charge of starting the documentation process, which includes maintaining a chain of custody, tracking evidence, and maintaining a chronological log of that evidence.
Incorrect Answers: You should always maintain a positive attitude and avoid distractions, but those concepts concern professional behavior, not first response and prohibited content.
Incorrect
When dealing with prohibited content, there will always be a first responder who is required to identify the issue, report through proper channels, and preserve data and possibly devices used. This person will be in charge of starting the documentation process, which includes maintaining a chain of custody, tracking evidence, and maintaining a chronological log of that evidence.
Incorrect Answers: You should always maintain a positive attitude and avoid distractions, but those concepts concern professional behavior, not first response and prohibited content.
Unattempted
When dealing with prohibited content, there will always be a first responder who is required to identify the issue, report through proper channels, and preserve data and possibly devices used. This person will be in charge of starting the documentation process, which includes maintaining a chain of custody, tracking evidence, and maintaining a chronological log of that evidence.
Incorrect Answers: You should always maintain a positive attitude and avoid distractions, but those concepts concern professional behavior, not first response and prohibited content.
Question 4 of 45
4. Question
Which of the following statements describes why the display on a laptop gets dimmer when the power supply from the AC outlet is disconnected?
Correct
The power management settings on the laptop can cause the display to automatically dim when the AC adapter is unplugged. In fact, this is the default on many laptops to conserve battery power. These settings can be configured within Power Options in Windows.
Incorrect Answers: You can certainly set the display to full brightness when on battery power; doing so just isn’t recommended. Laptops can operate properly when connected to the AC power adapter or when using the battery only. The display brightness of a laptop isn’t affected by any security settings.
Incorrect
The power management settings on the laptop can cause the display to automatically dim when the AC adapter is unplugged. In fact, this is the default on many laptops to conserve battery power. These settings can be configured within Power Options in Windows.
Incorrect Answers: You can certainly set the display to full brightness when on battery power; doing so just isn’t recommended. Laptops can operate properly when connected to the AC power adapter or when using the battery only. The display brightness of a laptop isn’t affected by any security settings.
Unattempted
The power management settings on the laptop can cause the display to automatically dim when the AC adapter is unplugged. In fact, this is the default on many laptops to conserve battery power. These settings can be configured within Power Options in Windows.
Incorrect Answers: You can certainly set the display to full brightness when on battery power; doing so just isn’t recommended. Laptops can operate properly when connected to the AC power adapter or when using the battery only. The display brightness of a laptop isn’t affected by any security settings.
Question 5 of 45
5. Question
A customer’s laptop LCD needs replacement. Which of the following tools should be used to remove the display bezel?
Correct
Use a plastic shim to open the display or remove the bezel that surrounds it.
Incorrect Answers: Pliers have many uses but could cause damage to the plastic that surrounds the display of a laptop. Plastic tweezers are used to remove hard-toreach parts such as screws from the inside of a PC. Flathead screwdrivers are not recommended because the metal can damage the plastic case of the laptop. However, after you remove the bezel, you will need a small Phillips-head screwdriver to unscrew the display.
Incorrect
Use a plastic shim to open the display or remove the bezel that surrounds it.
Incorrect Answers: Pliers have many uses but could cause damage to the plastic that surrounds the display of a laptop. Plastic tweezers are used to remove hard-toreach parts such as screws from the inside of a PC. Flathead screwdrivers are not recommended because the metal can damage the plastic case of the laptop. However, after you remove the bezel, you will need a small Phillips-head screwdriver to unscrew the display.
Unattempted
Use a plastic shim to open the display or remove the bezel that surrounds it.
Incorrect Answers: Pliers have many uses but could cause damage to the plastic that surrounds the display of a laptop. Plastic tweezers are used to remove hard-toreach parts such as screws from the inside of a PC. Flathead screwdrivers are not recommended because the metal can damage the plastic case of the laptop. However, after you remove the bezel, you will need a small Phillips-head screwdriver to unscrew the display.
Question 6 of 45
6. Question
Which of the following is the minimum processor requirement for Windows 10?
Correct
Windows 10 (and Windows 8 and Windows 7) requires a minimum processor frequency of 1 GHz.
Incorrect Answers: Windows 10 64-bit requires 32 GB of hard drive space. As of the writing of this book, 2 GHz is not a valid answer for Windows. The minimum RAM requirement for 64-bit versions of Windows is 2 GB.
Incorrect
Windows 10 (and Windows 8 and Windows 7) requires a minimum processor frequency of 1 GHz.
Incorrect Answers: Windows 10 64-bit requires 32 GB of hard drive space. As of the writing of this book, 2 GHz is not a valid answer for Windows. The minimum RAM requirement for 64-bit versions of Windows is 2 GB.
Unattempted
Windows 10 (and Windows 8 and Windows 7) requires a minimum processor frequency of 1 GHz.
Incorrect Answers: Windows 10 64-bit requires 32 GB of hard drive space. As of the writing of this book, 2 GHz is not a valid answer for Windows. The minimum RAM requirement for 64-bit versions of Windows is 2 GB.
Question 7 of 45
7. Question
Which of the following commands sets the time on a workstation?
Correct
If you are just setting the time on the computer, use the time command. Time can also be set in Windows within the Notification Area. This is a bit of a trick question because you are dealing only with local time, not anything network-related. So the rest of the answers are incorrect.
Incorrect Answers: The net time command is needed if you want to synchronize the local computer’s time to another system or just find out the time on a remote system. net timer is not a valid command. The net time command uses the /set option if you wish to synchronize time to another computer.
Incorrect
If you are just setting the time on the computer, use the time command. Time can also be set in Windows within the Notification Area. This is a bit of a trick question because you are dealing only with local time, not anything network-related. So the rest of the answers are incorrect.
Incorrect Answers: The net time command is needed if you want to synchronize the local computer’s time to another system or just find out the time on a remote system. net timer is not a valid command. The net time command uses the /set option if you wish to synchronize time to another computer.
Unattempted
If you are just setting the time on the computer, use the time command. Time can also be set in Windows within the Notification Area. This is a bit of a trick question because you are dealing only with local time, not anything network-related. So the rest of the answers are incorrect.
Incorrect Answers: The net time command is needed if you want to synchronize the local computer’s time to another system or just find out the time on a remote system. net timer is not a valid command. The net time command uses the /set option if you wish to synchronize time to another computer.
Question 8 of 45
8. Question
Your boss wants to implement BitLocker on yet a second laptop for traveling purposes. Which of the following should be performed before implementing BitLocker?
Correct
Before implementing the BitLocker solution in Windows, you should enable the trusted platform module (TPM) in the BIOS. This is the chip on the motherboard that includes the encryption code.
Incorrect Answers: UAC is User Account Control, a separate security option in Windows that checks whether users have administrative permissions before allowing them to carry out administrative tasks. Defragmenting the hard drive is not necessary, but it can’t hurt to at least analyze the drive and see if it needs to be defragged. Defragging a drive that requires it can increase performance. BitLocker works on FAT16, FAT32, NTFS, and exFAT partitions, so you do not need to convert the file system.
Incorrect
Before implementing the BitLocker solution in Windows, you should enable the trusted platform module (TPM) in the BIOS. This is the chip on the motherboard that includes the encryption code.
Incorrect Answers: UAC is User Account Control, a separate security option in Windows that checks whether users have administrative permissions before allowing them to carry out administrative tasks. Defragmenting the hard drive is not necessary, but it can’t hurt to at least analyze the drive and see if it needs to be defragged. Defragging a drive that requires it can increase performance. BitLocker works on FAT16, FAT32, NTFS, and exFAT partitions, so you do not need to convert the file system.
Unattempted
Before implementing the BitLocker solution in Windows, you should enable the trusted platform module (TPM) in the BIOS. This is the chip on the motherboard that includes the encryption code.
Incorrect Answers: UAC is User Account Control, a separate security option in Windows that checks whether users have administrative permissions before allowing them to carry out administrative tasks. Defragmenting the hard drive is not necessary, but it can’t hurt to at least analyze the drive and see if it needs to be defragged. Defragging a drive that requires it can increase performance. BitLocker works on FAT16, FAT32, NTFS, and exFAT partitions, so you do not need to convert the file system.
Question 9 of 45
9. Question
A desktop computer does not have a lit link light on the back of the computer. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?
Correct
The most likely answer in this scenario is that the network cable is disconnected. If the desktop computer is using a wired connection, it is most likely a twisted-pair Ethernet connection. When this cable is connected to the computer on one end and to a switch or other central connecting device on the other end, it initiates a network connection over the physical link. This link then causes the network adapter’s link light to light up. The link light is directly next to the RJ45 port of the network adapter. The corresponding port on the switch (or other similar device) is also lit. If the cable is disconnected, the link light becomes unlit, though there are other possibilities for this link light to be dark—for example, if the computer is off or if the switch port is disabled.
Incorrect Answers: The Wi-Fi connection might have its own link light (for example, on the front of a laptop), but this is separate from the wired connection link light. Although it is unlikely, a malfunctioning USB controller or port could possibly be the cause of the unlit link light, but only if the computer is using a USB-based network adapter. Normally, the network adapter (and corresponding RJ45 port) on a PC is either integrated into the motherboard or is installed as a PCIe x1 adapter card. If the system doesn’t POST properly, it usually means a problem with the RAM, video, or other primary component of the system. Generally, a network adapter will not cause a failure during POST.
Incorrect
The most likely answer in this scenario is that the network cable is disconnected. If the desktop computer is using a wired connection, it is most likely a twisted-pair Ethernet connection. When this cable is connected to the computer on one end and to a switch or other central connecting device on the other end, it initiates a network connection over the physical link. This link then causes the network adapter’s link light to light up. The link light is directly next to the RJ45 port of the network adapter. The corresponding port on the switch (or other similar device) is also lit. If the cable is disconnected, the link light becomes unlit, though there are other possibilities for this link light to be dark—for example, if the computer is off or if the switch port is disabled.
Incorrect Answers: The Wi-Fi connection might have its own link light (for example, on the front of a laptop), but this is separate from the wired connection link light. Although it is unlikely, a malfunctioning USB controller or port could possibly be the cause of the unlit link light, but only if the computer is using a USB-based network adapter. Normally, the network adapter (and corresponding RJ45 port) on a PC is either integrated into the motherboard or is installed as a PCIe x1 adapter card. If the system doesn’t POST properly, it usually means a problem with the RAM, video, or other primary component of the system. Generally, a network adapter will not cause a failure during POST.
Unattempted
The most likely answer in this scenario is that the network cable is disconnected. If the desktop computer is using a wired connection, it is most likely a twisted-pair Ethernet connection. When this cable is connected to the computer on one end and to a switch or other central connecting device on the other end, it initiates a network connection over the physical link. This link then causes the network adapter’s link light to light up. The link light is directly next to the RJ45 port of the network adapter. The corresponding port on the switch (or other similar device) is also lit. If the cable is disconnected, the link light becomes unlit, though there are other possibilities for this link light to be dark—for example, if the computer is off or if the switch port is disabled.
Incorrect Answers: The Wi-Fi connection might have its own link light (for example, on the front of a laptop), but this is separate from the wired connection link light. Although it is unlikely, a malfunctioning USB controller or port could possibly be the cause of the unlit link light, but only if the computer is using a USB-based network adapter. Normally, the network adapter (and corresponding RJ45 port) on a PC is either integrated into the motherboard or is installed as a PCIe x1 adapter card. If the system doesn’t POST properly, it usually means a problem with the RAM, video, or other primary component of the system. Generally, a network adapter will not cause a failure during POST.
Question 10 of 45
10. Question
One of your customers is running Windows on a PC that has a 3.0-GHz CPU, 16-GB RAM, and an integrated video card. The customer tells you that performance is slow when editing video files. Which of the following solutions increases performance on the computer?
Correct
The only solution listed is to upgrade the video card. This is the only way that computer performance can be increased while editing video files.
Incorrect Answers: The CPU and RAM can make the system faster when dealing with applications and calculations of many kinds, but when it comes to the video editing and rendering, an integrated video card is inadequate. No matter how much RAM you add or what CPU you put in, the video will still perform like an actor on the late, late, late movie—badly. Increasing the hard drive capacity will have no effect on video but can definitely help in other areas of system performance such as pagefile access and general data access.
Incorrect
The only solution listed is to upgrade the video card. This is the only way that computer performance can be increased while editing video files.
Incorrect Answers: The CPU and RAM can make the system faster when dealing with applications and calculations of many kinds, but when it comes to the video editing and rendering, an integrated video card is inadequate. No matter how much RAM you add or what CPU you put in, the video will still perform like an actor on the late, late, late movie—badly. Increasing the hard drive capacity will have no effect on video but can definitely help in other areas of system performance such as pagefile access and general data access.
Unattempted
The only solution listed is to upgrade the video card. This is the only way that computer performance can be increased while editing video files.
Incorrect Answers: The CPU and RAM can make the system faster when dealing with applications and calculations of many kinds, but when it comes to the video editing and rendering, an integrated video card is inadequate. No matter how much RAM you add or what CPU you put in, the video will still perform like an actor on the late, late, late movie—badly. Increasing the hard drive capacity will have no effect on video but can definitely help in other areas of system performance such as pagefile access and general data access.
Question 11 of 45
11. Question
A user asks you to explain a message that comes up on the computer display before the operating system boots. The message states that the UEFI/BIOS logged a chassis intrusion. Which of the following would be your explanation to the user?
Correct
A chassis intrusion means that the computer case has been opened. Some UEFI/BIOS programs have the capability to detect this. This is a security feature that informs the user of a possible breach. As a PC technician, you should check the computer inside and out for any possible tampering.
Incorrect Answers: The UEFI/BIOS program will not detect if the optical drive is open. If the CPU were loose, the computer would not boot, and there would be nothing to display. It is possible that a malicious individual has hacked, or attempted to hack, the system. However, this is not necessarily the case, although you should check just to make sure.
Incorrect
A chassis intrusion means that the computer case has been opened. Some UEFI/BIOS programs have the capability to detect this. This is a security feature that informs the user of a possible breach. As a PC technician, you should check the computer inside and out for any possible tampering.
Incorrect Answers: The UEFI/BIOS program will not detect if the optical drive is open. If the CPU were loose, the computer would not boot, and there would be nothing to display. It is possible that a malicious individual has hacked, or attempted to hack, the system. However, this is not necessarily the case, although you should check just to make sure.
Unattempted
A chassis intrusion means that the computer case has been opened. Some UEFI/BIOS programs have the capability to detect this. This is a security feature that informs the user of a possible breach. As a PC technician, you should check the computer inside and out for any possible tampering.
Incorrect Answers: The UEFI/BIOS program will not detect if the optical drive is open. If the CPU were loose, the computer would not boot, and there would be nothing to display. It is possible that a malicious individual has hacked, or attempted to hack, the system. However, this is not necessarily the case, although you should check just to make sure.
Question 12 of 45
12. Question
When a person takes control of a session between a server and a client, it is known as which type of attack?
Correct
Session hijacking occurs when an unwanted mediator takes control of the session between a client and a server (for example, an FTP or HTTP session). An example of this would be a man-in-themiddle (MITM) attack.
Incorrect Answers: DDoS is a distributed denial-ofservice attack, an attack perpetuated by hundreds or thousands of computers in an effort to take down a single server; the computers, individually known as zombies, are often unknowingly part of a botnet. A brute-force attack is an attempt to crack an encryption code or password. Malicious software is any compromising code or software that can damage a computer’s files; examples include viruses, spyware, worms, rootkits, ransomware, and Trojans.
Incorrect
Session hijacking occurs when an unwanted mediator takes control of the session between a client and a server (for example, an FTP or HTTP session). An example of this would be a man-in-themiddle (MITM) attack.
Incorrect Answers: DDoS is a distributed denial-ofservice attack, an attack perpetuated by hundreds or thousands of computers in an effort to take down a single server; the computers, individually known as zombies, are often unknowingly part of a botnet. A brute-force attack is an attempt to crack an encryption code or password. Malicious software is any compromising code or software that can damage a computer’s files; examples include viruses, spyware, worms, rootkits, ransomware, and Trojans.
Unattempted
Session hijacking occurs when an unwanted mediator takes control of the session between a client and a server (for example, an FTP or HTTP session). An example of this would be a man-in-themiddle (MITM) attack.
Incorrect Answers: DDoS is a distributed denial-ofservice attack, an attack perpetuated by hundreds or thousands of computers in an effort to take down a single server; the computers, individually known as zombies, are often unknowingly part of a botnet. A brute-force attack is an attempt to crack an encryption code or password. Malicious software is any compromising code or software that can damage a computer’s files; examples include viruses, spyware, worms, rootkits, ransomware, and Trojans.
Question 13 of 45
13. Question
In Windows, which utility enables you to select and copy characters from any font?
Correct
The Character Map enables you to copy characters from any font type. To open it, go to Run and type charmap. In Windows 10, go to Start > Windows Accessories > Character Map. In Windows 7, go to Start > All Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Character Map. Otherwise, in any version of Windows, you can locate it simply by searching for it by name.
Incorrect Answers: The Language Bar automatically appears when you use handwriting recognition or speech recognition. It can be configured within Region and Languages. Sticky keys is a feature that helps users with physical disabilities; it can be turned on by rapidly pressing the Shift key five times and agreeing Yes. Control Panel > Fonts opens the Fonts folder, where you can add or remove text fonts.
Incorrect
The Character Map enables you to copy characters from any font type. To open it, go to Run and type charmap. In Windows 10, go to Start > Windows Accessories > Character Map. In Windows 7, go to Start > All Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Character Map. Otherwise, in any version of Windows, you can locate it simply by searching for it by name.
Incorrect Answers: The Language Bar automatically appears when you use handwriting recognition or speech recognition. It can be configured within Region and Languages. Sticky keys is a feature that helps users with physical disabilities; it can be turned on by rapidly pressing the Shift key five times and agreeing Yes. Control Panel > Fonts opens the Fonts folder, where you can add or remove text fonts.
Unattempted
The Character Map enables you to copy characters from any font type. To open it, go to Run and type charmap. In Windows 10, go to Start > Windows Accessories > Character Map. In Windows 7, go to Start > All Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Character Map. Otherwise, in any version of Windows, you can locate it simply by searching for it by name.
Incorrect Answers: The Language Bar automatically appears when you use handwriting recognition or speech recognition. It can be configured within Region and Languages. Sticky keys is a feature that helps users with physical disabilities; it can be turned on by rapidly pressing the Shift key five times and agreeing Yes. Control Panel > Fonts opens the Fonts folder, where you can add or remove text fonts.
Question 14 of 45
14. Question
You need to edit a protected .dll file on a Windows 8.1 Pro PC, but you cannot find the file you are looking for in the System32 folder. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should you configure?
Correct
Use the Folder Options utility in the Control Panel of Windows 8.1. From there, you go to the View tab and then deselect the check box labeled “Hide protected operating system files (Recommended).” You might also deselect the “Hide extensions for known file types” check box to see which ones are .dll files. Note that this utility was removed from the Windows 10 Control Panel. Instead, you can access it with File Explorer Options or from the File Explorer program by choosing View > Options > Change Folder and Search Options. Or you can go to Run and type control folders.
Incorrect Answers: The other Control Panel utilities do not apply here.
Incorrect
Use the Folder Options utility in the Control Panel of Windows 8.1. From there, you go to the View tab and then deselect the check box labeled “Hide protected operating system files (Recommended).” You might also deselect the “Hide extensions for known file types” check box to see which ones are .dll files. Note that this utility was removed from the Windows 10 Control Panel. Instead, you can access it with File Explorer Options or from the File Explorer program by choosing View > Options > Change Folder and Search Options. Or you can go to Run and type control folders.
Incorrect Answers: The other Control Panel utilities do not apply here.
Unattempted
Use the Folder Options utility in the Control Panel of Windows 8.1. From there, you go to the View tab and then deselect the check box labeled “Hide protected operating system files (Recommended).” You might also deselect the “Hide extensions for known file types” check box to see which ones are .dll files. Note that this utility was removed from the Windows 10 Control Panel. Instead, you can access it with File Explorer Options or from the File Explorer program by choosing View > Options > Change Folder and Search Options. Or you can go to Run and type control folders.
Incorrect Answers: The other Control Panel utilities do not apply here.
Question 15 of 45
15. Question
Which of the following IP addresses would a technician see if a computer running Windows is connected to a multifunction network device and is attempting to obtain an IP address automatically but is not receiving an IP address from the DHCP server?
Correct
If the computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, Windows will take over and apply an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). This address will be on the 169.254.0.0 network.
Incorrect Answers: All of the other addresses could possibly be obtained from a DHCP server. 172.16.10.10, 192.168.0.10, and 192.168.10.10 are all private IP addresses that could typically be obtained through DHCP.
Incorrect
If the computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, Windows will take over and apply an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). This address will be on the 169.254.0.0 network.
Incorrect Answers: All of the other addresses could possibly be obtained from a DHCP server. 172.16.10.10, 192.168.0.10, and 192.168.10.10 are all private IP addresses that could typically be obtained through DHCP.
Unattempted
If the computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, Windows will take over and apply an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). This address will be on the 169.254.0.0 network.
Incorrect Answers: All of the other addresses could possibly be obtained from a DHCP server. 172.16.10.10, 192.168.0.10, and 192.168.10.10 are all private IP addresses that could typically be obtained through DHCP.
Question 16 of 45
16. Question
Which of the following is configured in the UEFI/BIOS? (Select the four best answers.)
Correct
The time/date, boot priority (boot sequence), passwords, and Wake-on-LAN (WOL) can all be configured in the UEFI/BIOS.
Incorrect Answers: The registry and USB drivers are configured in Windows.
Incorrect
The time/date, boot priority (boot sequence), passwords, and Wake-on-LAN (WOL) can all be configured in the UEFI/BIOS.
Incorrect Answers: The registry and USB drivers are configured in Windows.
Unattempted
The time/date, boot priority (boot sequence), passwords, and Wake-on-LAN (WOL) can all be configured in the UEFI/BIOS.
Incorrect Answers: The registry and USB drivers are configured in Windows.
Question 17 of 45
17. Question
Which of the following devices is used to implement network security for an IT environment?
Correct
A firewall is used to implement security for the computer network—for example, access control lists (ACLs) that allow or deny incoming and outgoing traffic.
Incorrect Answers: A managed switch connects computers and servers on the network and can be configured from a remote workstation (usually by logging in to the switch via a browser). A repeater is a physical device that amplifies a network signal so that it can travel farther. The gateway device is usually a router; it acts as the doorway to the Internet or other networks for the computer on the LAN.
Incorrect
A firewall is used to implement security for the computer network—for example, access control lists (ACLs) that allow or deny incoming and outgoing traffic.
Incorrect Answers: A managed switch connects computers and servers on the network and can be configured from a remote workstation (usually by logging in to the switch via a browser). A repeater is a physical device that amplifies a network signal so that it can travel farther. The gateway device is usually a router; it acts as the doorway to the Internet or other networks for the computer on the LAN.
Unattempted
A firewall is used to implement security for the computer network—for example, access control lists (ACLs) that allow or deny incoming and outgoing traffic.
Incorrect Answers: A managed switch connects computers and servers on the network and can be configured from a remote workstation (usually by logging in to the switch via a browser). A repeater is a physical device that amplifies a network signal so that it can travel farther. The gateway device is usually a router; it acts as the doorway to the Internet or other networks for the computer on the LAN.
Question 18 of 45
18. Question
The message “The Windows Boot Configuration Data File Is Missing Required Information” appears on the screen. Which command can repair this issue?
Correct
Bootrec /rebuildbcd attempts to rebuild the boot configuration store.
Incorrect Answers: Bootrec /fixboot is one of the methods you can try to repair bootmgr.exe in Windows. Bootrec /fixmbr rewrites the master boot record in a Windows system that has an MBR-based hard drive (doesn’t affect the more common GPT-based drive). boot\bcd is where the boot configuration store is located.
Incorrect
Bootrec /rebuildbcd attempts to rebuild the boot configuration store.
Incorrect Answers: Bootrec /fixboot is one of the methods you can try to repair bootmgr.exe in Windows. Bootrec /fixmbr rewrites the master boot record in a Windows system that has an MBR-based hard drive (doesn’t affect the more common GPT-based drive). boot\bcd is where the boot configuration store is located.
Unattempted
Bootrec /rebuildbcd attempts to rebuild the boot configuration store.
Incorrect Answers: Bootrec /fixboot is one of the methods you can try to repair bootmgr.exe in Windows. Bootrec /fixmbr rewrites the master boot record in a Windows system that has an MBR-based hard drive (doesn’t affect the more common GPT-based drive). boot\bcd is where the boot configuration store is located.
Question 19 of 45
19. Question
Which of the following can be described as removing the limitations of Apple iOS?
Correct
Jailbreaking is the process of removing the limitations of an Apple device’s iOS. It enables a user to gain root access to the system and download previously unavailable applications, most likely unauthorized by Apple.
Incorrect Answers: Rooting is similar, but it is a term typically used with Android-based devices. It gives administrative capabilities to users of Android-based devices. Both jailbreaking and rooting are not recommended and may void device warranties. VirusBarrier was the first AV software designed for iOS; it was developed in response to a particularly nasty jailbreak. Super-admin powers is just a colorful term for what you get when you root or jailbreak a mobile device.
Incorrect
Jailbreaking is the process of removing the limitations of an Apple device’s iOS. It enables a user to gain root access to the system and download previously unavailable applications, most likely unauthorized by Apple.
Incorrect Answers: Rooting is similar, but it is a term typically used with Android-based devices. It gives administrative capabilities to users of Android-based devices. Both jailbreaking and rooting are not recommended and may void device warranties. VirusBarrier was the first AV software designed for iOS; it was developed in response to a particularly nasty jailbreak. Super-admin powers is just a colorful term for what you get when you root or jailbreak a mobile device.
Unattempted
Jailbreaking is the process of removing the limitations of an Apple device’s iOS. It enables a user to gain root access to the system and download previously unavailable applications, most likely unauthorized by Apple.
Incorrect Answers: Rooting is similar, but it is a term typically used with Android-based devices. It gives administrative capabilities to users of Android-based devices. Both jailbreaking and rooting are not recommended and may void device warranties. VirusBarrier was the first AV software designed for iOS; it was developed in response to a particularly nasty jailbreak. Super-admin powers is just a colorful term for what you get when you root or jailbreak a mobile device.
Question 20 of 45
20. Question
You have been asked to load a copy of the company’s purchased software on a personal computer. Which of the following statements best describes the first step you should take to remedy the problem?
Correct
You should first verify that the installation is allowed under a company’s licensing agreement. It probably isn’t, but you should check first. Most organizations do not allow purchased software to be installed on an employee’s home computer. If doing so is against organization policy, you should notify your supervisor. There are many types of licenses that you should be aware of, including end-user licensing agreements (EULA), digital rights management (DRM), commercial and enterprise licenses (such as client access licenses or CALs), open source versus closed source (that is, Android versus iOS), personal licenses, and so on. Again, be sure to follow and incorporate corporate enduser policies and security best practices when it comes to these types of licenses.
Incorrect Answers: You would notify your supervisor/manager, not the company owner, unless it was a very small company. Verify whether the license is valid or allowed before advising any individuals. Calling law enforcement is premature because you have not yet verified the nature and validity of the license.
Incorrect
You should first verify that the installation is allowed under a company’s licensing agreement. It probably isn’t, but you should check first. Most organizations do not allow purchased software to be installed on an employee’s home computer. If doing so is against organization policy, you should notify your supervisor. There are many types of licenses that you should be aware of, including end-user licensing agreements (EULA), digital rights management (DRM), commercial and enterprise licenses (such as client access licenses or CALs), open source versus closed source (that is, Android versus iOS), personal licenses, and so on. Again, be sure to follow and incorporate corporate enduser policies and security best practices when it comes to these types of licenses.
Incorrect Answers: You would notify your supervisor/manager, not the company owner, unless it was a very small company. Verify whether the license is valid or allowed before advising any individuals. Calling law enforcement is premature because you have not yet verified the nature and validity of the license.
Unattempted
You should first verify that the installation is allowed under a company’s licensing agreement. It probably isn’t, but you should check first. Most organizations do not allow purchased software to be installed on an employee’s home computer. If doing so is against organization policy, you should notify your supervisor. There are many types of licenses that you should be aware of, including end-user licensing agreements (EULA), digital rights management (DRM), commercial and enterprise licenses (such as client access licenses or CALs), open source versus closed source (that is, Android versus iOS), personal licenses, and so on. Again, be sure to follow and incorporate corporate enduser policies and security best practices when it comes to these types of licenses.
Incorrect Answers: You would notify your supervisor/manager, not the company owner, unless it was a very small company. Verify whether the license is valid or allowed before advising any individuals. Calling law enforcement is premature because you have not yet verified the nature and validity of the license.
Question 21 of 45
21. Question
Beep codes are generated by which of the following?
Correct
As the power-on self-test (POST) checks all the components of the computer, it may present its findings on the screen or in the form of beep codes.
Incorrect Answers: The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) stores information such as time and date and UEFI/BIOS passwords. RTC stands for realtime clock; it is the device that keeps time on the motherboard. Windows generates all kinds of error codes but not beep codes. The beep codes come from the POST, which happens before Windows boots.
Incorrect
As the power-on self-test (POST) checks all the components of the computer, it may present its findings on the screen or in the form of beep codes.
Incorrect Answers: The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) stores information such as time and date and UEFI/BIOS passwords. RTC stands for realtime clock; it is the device that keeps time on the motherboard. Windows generates all kinds of error codes but not beep codes. The beep codes come from the POST, which happens before Windows boots.
Unattempted
As the power-on self-test (POST) checks all the components of the computer, it may present its findings on the screen or in the form of beep codes.
Incorrect Answers: The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) stores information such as time and date and UEFI/BIOS passwords. RTC stands for realtime clock; it is the device that keeps time on the motherboard. Windows generates all kinds of error codes but not beep codes. The beep codes come from the POST, which happens before Windows boots.
Question 22 of 45
22. Question
You want to test whether IPv4 and IPv6 are working properly on a computer. Which of the following commands should be issued?
Correct
To test IPv4, use the command ping 127.0.0.1. To test IPv6, use the command ping ::1.
Incorrect Answers: You don’t run ipconfig commands to particular IP addresses. There are no ping :1 or ping 127::1 commands.
Incorrect
To test IPv4, use the command ping 127.0.0.1. To test IPv6, use the command ping ::1.
Incorrect Answers: You don’t run ipconfig commands to particular IP addresses. There are no ping :1 or ping 127::1 commands.
Unattempted
To test IPv4, use the command ping 127.0.0.1. To test IPv6, use the command ping ::1.
Incorrect Answers: You don’t run ipconfig commands to particular IP addresses. There are no ping :1 or ping 127::1 commands.
Question 23 of 45
23. Question
Your end users work with a web-based calendar app. Which of the following cloud-based technologies are they using?
Correct
This is an example of software as a service (SaaS). Google, Microsoft, Apple, and other companies offer this service to end users and business users.
Incorrect Answers: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) offers computer networking, storage, load balancing, routing, and VM hosting. Platform as a service (PaaS) provides various software solutions to organizations, especially the capability to develop and test applications. DaaS can stand for either data as a service or desktop as a service. Data as a service is similar to SaaS in that products are provided on demand, but it is more dataoriented as opposed to app-oriented. In desktop as a service, a cloud provider hosts the back end of a virtual desktop, also known as virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI).
Incorrect
This is an example of software as a service (SaaS). Google, Microsoft, Apple, and other companies offer this service to end users and business users.
Incorrect Answers: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) offers computer networking, storage, load balancing, routing, and VM hosting. Platform as a service (PaaS) provides various software solutions to organizations, especially the capability to develop and test applications. DaaS can stand for either data as a service or desktop as a service. Data as a service is similar to SaaS in that products are provided on demand, but it is more dataoriented as opposed to app-oriented. In desktop as a service, a cloud provider hosts the back end of a virtual desktop, also known as virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI).
Unattempted
This is an example of software as a service (SaaS). Google, Microsoft, Apple, and other companies offer this service to end users and business users.
Incorrect Answers: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) offers computer networking, storage, load balancing, routing, and VM hosting. Platform as a service (PaaS) provides various software solutions to organizations, especially the capability to develop and test applications. DaaS can stand for either data as a service or desktop as a service. Data as a service is similar to SaaS in that products are provided on demand, but it is more dataoriented as opposed to app-oriented. In desktop as a service, a cloud provider hosts the back end of a virtual desktop, also known as virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI).
Question 24 of 45
24. Question
Which of the following should be performed during a hard drive replacement to best maintain data privacy?
Correct
The drive should be completely erased with bit-level erasure software. If it is to be disposed of or is to leave the building, it should also be shredded or degaussed (or both).
Incorrect Answers: Formatting is not enough because data remanence (residue) is left on the drive from which files can be reconstructed by smart people with some smart software. It is a waste of time to install AV software on a drive before removing it. However, AV software should be loaded up when the new drive is installed.
Incorrect
The drive should be completely erased with bit-level erasure software. If it is to be disposed of or is to leave the building, it should also be shredded or degaussed (or both).
Incorrect Answers: Formatting is not enough because data remanence (residue) is left on the drive from which files can be reconstructed by smart people with some smart software. It is a waste of time to install AV software on a drive before removing it. However, AV software should be loaded up when the new drive is installed.
Unattempted
The drive should be completely erased with bit-level erasure software. If it is to be disposed of or is to leave the building, it should also be shredded or degaussed (or both).
Incorrect Answers: Formatting is not enough because data remanence (residue) is left on the drive from which files can be reconstructed by smart people with some smart software. It is a waste of time to install AV software on a drive before removing it. However, AV software should be loaded up when the new drive is installed.
Question 25 of 45
25. Question
In Windows, which of the following built-in applets should be used by a technician to enable and manage offline files, view conflicts and partnerships, and ensure locally stored files match those stored on an external device or server?
Correct
The Sync Center is located within the Control Panel or can be found using the search tool. It allows you to set up synchronization partnerships with external devices and enables you to manage offline files. Sometimes, the individual icons within the Control Panel are referred to as applets.
Incorrect Answers: File History is the name of the backup program in Windows 8/8.1 and Windows 10. The command-line–based User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used to move files and user settings from multiple computers at once. Robust file copy is a Command Prompt tool (Robocopy) that is used to move large amounts of data; it is the successor to xcopy, though xcopy is still available in Windows.
Incorrect
The Sync Center is located within the Control Panel or can be found using the search tool. It allows you to set up synchronization partnerships with external devices and enables you to manage offline files. Sometimes, the individual icons within the Control Panel are referred to as applets.
Incorrect Answers: File History is the name of the backup program in Windows 8/8.1 and Windows 10. The command-line–based User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used to move files and user settings from multiple computers at once. Robust file copy is a Command Prompt tool (Robocopy) that is used to move large amounts of data; it is the successor to xcopy, though xcopy is still available in Windows.
Unattempted
The Sync Center is located within the Control Panel or can be found using the search tool. It allows you to set up synchronization partnerships with external devices and enables you to manage offline files. Sometimes, the individual icons within the Control Panel are referred to as applets.
Incorrect Answers: File History is the name of the backup program in Windows 8/8.1 and Windows 10. The command-line–based User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used to move files and user settings from multiple computers at once. Robust file copy is a Command Prompt tool (Robocopy) that is used to move large amounts of data; it is the successor to xcopy, though xcopy is still available in Windows.
Question 26 of 45
26. Question
Which of the following statements is true?
Correct
Authentication can be carried out by utilizing something a user is, such as a fingerprint; something a user knows, such as a password or PIN; something a user has, such as a smart card or token; and something a user does, such as writing a signature or speaking words.
Incorrect Answers: A smart card is something the user has (a possession factor), not something the user knows. A PIN and a password are something the user knows (a knowledge factor), not something the user does. A signature is something the user does, not something the user has.
Incorrect
Authentication can be carried out by utilizing something a user is, such as a fingerprint; something a user knows, such as a password or PIN; something a user has, such as a smart card or token; and something a user does, such as writing a signature or speaking words.
Incorrect Answers: A smart card is something the user has (a possession factor), not something the user knows. A PIN and a password are something the user knows (a knowledge factor), not something the user does. A signature is something the user does, not something the user has.
Unattempted
Authentication can be carried out by utilizing something a user is, such as a fingerprint; something a user knows, such as a password or PIN; something a user has, such as a smart card or token; and something a user does, such as writing a signature or speaking words.
Incorrect Answers: A smart card is something the user has (a possession factor), not something the user knows. A PIN and a password are something the user knows (a knowledge factor), not something the user does. A signature is something the user does, not something the user has.
Question 27 of 45
27. Question
Which of the following tools is not used as often as a Phillips screwdriver but is sometimes used to remove screws from the outside of a computer case or from within a laptop?
Correct
The Torx screwdriver (also known as a Torx wrench) is a special tool used to remove screws from the outside of a case; often, proprietary computer manufacturers use these screws. This tool can also be used to remove screws (albeit smaller ones) from a laptop. The standard is the size T10 Torx screwdriver, but you might also use a T8 or even a T6 on laptops.
Incorrect Answers: A monkey wrench is an adjustable wrench with large jaws—something you should not typically need when working on computers! A spudger is used to separate plastic bezels and other similar plastics when working on mobile devices. Pliers have a variety of uses, but removing screws is not one of them. However, as a computer technician, you should have all these tools in your toolkit.
Incorrect
The Torx screwdriver (also known as a Torx wrench) is a special tool used to remove screws from the outside of a case; often, proprietary computer manufacturers use these screws. This tool can also be used to remove screws (albeit smaller ones) from a laptop. The standard is the size T10 Torx screwdriver, but you might also use a T8 or even a T6 on laptops.
Incorrect Answers: A monkey wrench is an adjustable wrench with large jaws—something you should not typically need when working on computers! A spudger is used to separate plastic bezels and other similar plastics when working on mobile devices. Pliers have a variety of uses, but removing screws is not one of them. However, as a computer technician, you should have all these tools in your toolkit.
Unattempted
The Torx screwdriver (also known as a Torx wrench) is a special tool used to remove screws from the outside of a case; often, proprietary computer manufacturers use these screws. This tool can also be used to remove screws (albeit smaller ones) from a laptop. The standard is the size T10 Torx screwdriver, but you might also use a T8 or even a T6 on laptops.
Incorrect Answers: A monkey wrench is an adjustable wrench with large jaws—something you should not typically need when working on computers! A spudger is used to separate plastic bezels and other similar plastics when working on mobile devices. Pliers have a variety of uses, but removing screws is not one of them. However, as a computer technician, you should have all these tools in your toolkit.
Question 28 of 45
28. Question
Which of the following measurements is the typical latency of an SATA hard drive?
Correct
The typical latency of an SATA magneticbased hard disk drive is 4.2 ms (milliseconds). When you are dealing with magnetic drives, latency is the delay in time before a particular sector on the platter can be read. It is directly linked to rotational speed. A hard drive with a rotational speed of 7200 RPM has an average latency of 4.2 ms.
Incorrect Answers: Note that 300 MB/s is the data transfer rate of an SATA revision 2.0 hard drive; it is also expressed as 3.0 Gb/s. Also, 7200 RPM is the rotational speed of the drive, and 64 MB is a common amount of cache memory on a hard drive; it is usually DRAM.
Incorrect
The typical latency of an SATA magneticbased hard disk drive is 4.2 ms (milliseconds). When you are dealing with magnetic drives, latency is the delay in time before a particular sector on the platter can be read. It is directly linked to rotational speed. A hard drive with a rotational speed of 7200 RPM has an average latency of 4.2 ms.
Incorrect Answers: Note that 300 MB/s is the data transfer rate of an SATA revision 2.0 hard drive; it is also expressed as 3.0 Gb/s. Also, 7200 RPM is the rotational speed of the drive, and 64 MB is a common amount of cache memory on a hard drive; it is usually DRAM.
Unattempted
The typical latency of an SATA magneticbased hard disk drive is 4.2 ms (milliseconds). When you are dealing with magnetic drives, latency is the delay in time before a particular sector on the platter can be read. It is directly linked to rotational speed. A hard drive with a rotational speed of 7200 RPM has an average latency of 4.2 ms.
Incorrect Answers: Note that 300 MB/s is the data transfer rate of an SATA revision 2.0 hard drive; it is also expressed as 3.0 Gb/s. Also, 7200 RPM is the rotational speed of the drive, and 64 MB is a common amount of cache memory on a hard drive; it is usually DRAM.
Question 29 of 45
29. Question
You are now a manager of a technical services team. One of your technicians notices that a printer is jamming just above the printer tray. Which of the following steps should the technician first perform to resolve the issue?
Correct
The technician should clean the pickup rollers. If they are dirty or oily, they could cause a paper jam directly behind or above the paper tray.
Incorrect Answers: The feeder rollers would cause a jam further in the printer. A fuser issue would cause a jam up toward the end of the printing path. The drum (or toner cartridge) will usually not cause a paper jam, but in the rare case, simply replace the toner cartridge.
Incorrect
The technician should clean the pickup rollers. If they are dirty or oily, they could cause a paper jam directly behind or above the paper tray.
Incorrect Answers: The feeder rollers would cause a jam further in the printer. A fuser issue would cause a jam up toward the end of the printing path. The drum (or toner cartridge) will usually not cause a paper jam, but in the rare case, simply replace the toner cartridge.
Unattempted
The technician should clean the pickup rollers. If they are dirty or oily, they could cause a paper jam directly behind or above the paper tray.
Incorrect Answers: The feeder rollers would cause a jam further in the printer. A fuser issue would cause a jam up toward the end of the printing path. The drum (or toner cartridge) will usually not cause a paper jam, but in the rare case, simply replace the toner cartridge.
Question 30 of 45
30. Question
Which tool is used to back up data on the C: drive in Windows 10?
Correct
The Windows 10 and 8 File History utility (accessible in the Control Panel) enables a user to back up files or the entire PC.
Incorrect Answers: The File History utility is the successor to Windows 7’s Backup and Restore. BitLocker is Microsoft’s full drive encryption software. Time Machine is the backup program that is built into macOS.
Incorrect
The Windows 10 and 8 File History utility (accessible in the Control Panel) enables a user to back up files or the entire PC.
Incorrect Answers: The File History utility is the successor to Windows 7’s Backup and Restore. BitLocker is Microsoft’s full drive encryption software. Time Machine is the backup program that is built into macOS.
Unattempted
The Windows 10 and 8 File History utility (accessible in the Control Panel) enables a user to back up files or the entire PC.
Incorrect Answers: The File History utility is the successor to Windows 7’s Backup and Restore. BitLocker is Microsoft’s full drive encryption software. Time Machine is the backup program that is built into macOS.
Question 31 of 45
31. Question
An attacker is constantly trying to hack into one of your customer’s SOHO networks. Which of the following statements best describes the easiest, most practical way to protect the network from intrusion?
Correct
Answer: D Explanation: The most practical way to prevent intrusion to the network is to install a firewall. In fact, if this is a SOHO network, chances are the network is controlled by a multifunction network device that already acts as a switch and a router and probably has built-in firewall technology; it just has to be enabled. Usually, these are enabled by default, but perhaps someone inadvertently disabled this feature, and that’s one of the reasons an attacker keeps trying to get into the network.
Incorrect Answers: An intrusion-detection system (IDS) is usually more elaborate and costs more money, but it would help to prevent network intrusion. (Some devices combine IDS and firewall technologies, but usually not SOHO multifunction network devices.) Disabling the SSID helps to discourage the average user from accessing the wireless network, but any hacker worth his or her salt can get right past that; plus, the attacker could be trying to connect directly through the Internet connection. Antivirus software, regardless of where it is installed, does not repel attackers; it locates and quarantines malware. Disconnecting the Internet connection would work; the hacker wouldn’t be able to get in, but none of the employees would be able to use the Internet. Not a good compromise.
Incorrect
Answer: D Explanation: The most practical way to prevent intrusion to the network is to install a firewall. In fact, if this is a SOHO network, chances are the network is controlled by a multifunction network device that already acts as a switch and a router and probably has built-in firewall technology; it just has to be enabled. Usually, these are enabled by default, but perhaps someone inadvertently disabled this feature, and that’s one of the reasons an attacker keeps trying to get into the network.
Incorrect Answers: An intrusion-detection system (IDS) is usually more elaborate and costs more money, but it would help to prevent network intrusion. (Some devices combine IDS and firewall technologies, but usually not SOHO multifunction network devices.) Disabling the SSID helps to discourage the average user from accessing the wireless network, but any hacker worth his or her salt can get right past that; plus, the attacker could be trying to connect directly through the Internet connection. Antivirus software, regardless of where it is installed, does not repel attackers; it locates and quarantines malware. Disconnecting the Internet connection would work; the hacker wouldn’t be able to get in, but none of the employees would be able to use the Internet. Not a good compromise.
Unattempted
Answer: D Explanation: The most practical way to prevent intrusion to the network is to install a firewall. In fact, if this is a SOHO network, chances are the network is controlled by a multifunction network device that already acts as a switch and a router and probably has built-in firewall technology; it just has to be enabled. Usually, these are enabled by default, but perhaps someone inadvertently disabled this feature, and that’s one of the reasons an attacker keeps trying to get into the network.
Incorrect Answers: An intrusion-detection system (IDS) is usually more elaborate and costs more money, but it would help to prevent network intrusion. (Some devices combine IDS and firewall technologies, but usually not SOHO multifunction network devices.) Disabling the SSID helps to discourage the average user from accessing the wireless network, but any hacker worth his or her salt can get right past that; plus, the attacker could be trying to connect directly through the Internet connection. Antivirus software, regardless of where it is installed, does not repel attackers; it locates and quarantines malware. Disconnecting the Internet connection would work; the hacker wouldn’t be able to get in, but none of the employees would be able to use the Internet. Not a good compromise.
Question 32 of 45
32. Question
Moving your CPU’s speed beyond its normal operating range is called _____________.
Correct
Overclocking is the act of increasing your CPU’s operating speed beyond its normal rated speed.
Incorrect Answers: The rest of the terms are not used in relation to this concept.
Incorrect
Overclocking is the act of increasing your CPU’s operating speed beyond its normal rated speed.
Incorrect Answers: The rest of the terms are not used in relation to this concept.
Unattempted
Overclocking is the act of increasing your CPU’s operating speed beyond its normal rated speed.
Incorrect Answers: The rest of the terms are not used in relation to this concept.
Question 33 of 45
33. Question
The marketing printer has been used for four years. Which of the following statements represents a best practice for ensuring the printer remains in good working order?
Correct
A maintenance kit includes a new fuser assembly, rollers, and more. Installing a maintenance kit is like changing a car’s oil (although it isn’t done as often).
Incorrect Answers: Cleaning the printer might not be necessary. If you have a toner spill or work in a dirty environment, cleaning it might be a good idea. Clearing the counter is something you might do on an inkjet printer; this process clears the counter of how much ink goes through the cartridge. Printing a test page is important when first installing a printer and when you finish installing a maintenance kit.
Incorrect
A maintenance kit includes a new fuser assembly, rollers, and more. Installing a maintenance kit is like changing a car’s oil (although it isn’t done as often).
Incorrect Answers: Cleaning the printer might not be necessary. If you have a toner spill or work in a dirty environment, cleaning it might be a good idea. Clearing the counter is something you might do on an inkjet printer; this process clears the counter of how much ink goes through the cartridge. Printing a test page is important when first installing a printer and when you finish installing a maintenance kit.
Unattempted
A maintenance kit includes a new fuser assembly, rollers, and more. Installing a maintenance kit is like changing a car’s oil (although it isn’t done as often).
Incorrect Answers: Cleaning the printer might not be necessary. If you have a toner spill or work in a dirty environment, cleaning it might be a good idea. Clearing the counter is something you might do on an inkjet printer; this process clears the counter of how much ink goes through the cartridge. Printing a test page is important when first installing a printer and when you finish installing a maintenance kit.
Question 34 of 45
34. Question
You configured a customer’s router to automatically assign only five IP addresses in an attempt to make the network more secure. Now you notice that the wireless printer is intermittently losing connections when there are multiple users on the wireless network. Which of the following steps represents the best solution?
Correct
If the wireless printer is losing connections when multiple users are on the network, the reason is probably that there aren’t enough automatically assigned IP addresses to go around. You should configure the printer to use a static IP address instead of receiving one dynamically from the router. This address will be permanent and should fix the problem. Often, companies insist that printers (as well as routers, switches, and servers) always get a static address to avoid problems of this sort.
Incorrect Answers: Increasing the IP lease times might work; it might not. When multiple users attempt to get on the wireless network, someone is going to lose out; it might be a person at a laptop, or it might be the printer or other device. Therefore, this is not a permanent solution. Another access point might increase your wireless coverage, but it will do nothing for your IP issue. The whole problem here is that the printer was configured for DHCP; it was obtaining its IP address automatically from the DHCP server within the router. When it is changed to static, it doesn’t have to compete for the five dynamically assigned IPs.
Incorrect
If the wireless printer is losing connections when multiple users are on the network, the reason is probably that there aren’t enough automatically assigned IP addresses to go around. You should configure the printer to use a static IP address instead of receiving one dynamically from the router. This address will be permanent and should fix the problem. Often, companies insist that printers (as well as routers, switches, and servers) always get a static address to avoid problems of this sort.
Incorrect Answers: Increasing the IP lease times might work; it might not. When multiple users attempt to get on the wireless network, someone is going to lose out; it might be a person at a laptop, or it might be the printer or other device. Therefore, this is not a permanent solution. Another access point might increase your wireless coverage, but it will do nothing for your IP issue. The whole problem here is that the printer was configured for DHCP; it was obtaining its IP address automatically from the DHCP server within the router. When it is changed to static, it doesn’t have to compete for the five dynamically assigned IPs.
Unattempted
If the wireless printer is losing connections when multiple users are on the network, the reason is probably that there aren’t enough automatically assigned IP addresses to go around. You should configure the printer to use a static IP address instead of receiving one dynamically from the router. This address will be permanent and should fix the problem. Often, companies insist that printers (as well as routers, switches, and servers) always get a static address to avoid problems of this sort.
Incorrect Answers: Increasing the IP lease times might work; it might not. When multiple users attempt to get on the wireless network, someone is going to lose out; it might be a person at a laptop, or it might be the printer or other device. Therefore, this is not a permanent solution. Another access point might increase your wireless coverage, but it will do nothing for your IP issue. The whole problem here is that the printer was configured for DHCP; it was obtaining its IP address automatically from the DHCP server within the router. When it is changed to static, it doesn’t have to compete for the five dynamically assigned IPs.
Question 35 of 45
35. Question
You create an answer file to aid in installing Windows. Which type of installation are you performing? (Select the best answer.)
Correct
An unattended installation of Windows requires an answer file. This file is normally named unattend.xml. Unattended installations can be done locally or as part of a network installation using Windows Deployment Services (WDS) in Server 2008 or higher.
Incorrect Answers: Drive image installations use thirdparty programs such as Ghost or work with a System Restore image created within Windows. Local installation from USB is possible if you copy the Windows .iso file to the USB flash drive (if the drive is big enough) and obtain the USB/DVD download tool from the Microsoft website. A multiboot installation means that more than one operating system is being installed to the same drive. One or both of these could possibly be unattended installations. Remember that with multiboot installs, each OS should inhabit its own primary partition.
Incorrect
An unattended installation of Windows requires an answer file. This file is normally named unattend.xml. Unattended installations can be done locally or as part of a network installation using Windows Deployment Services (WDS) in Server 2008 or higher.
Incorrect Answers: Drive image installations use thirdparty programs such as Ghost or work with a System Restore image created within Windows. Local installation from USB is possible if you copy the Windows .iso file to the USB flash drive (if the drive is big enough) and obtain the USB/DVD download tool from the Microsoft website. A multiboot installation means that more than one operating system is being installed to the same drive. One or both of these could possibly be unattended installations. Remember that with multiboot installs, each OS should inhabit its own primary partition.
Unattempted
An unattended installation of Windows requires an answer file. This file is normally named unattend.xml. Unattended installations can be done locally or as part of a network installation using Windows Deployment Services (WDS) in Server 2008 or higher.
Incorrect Answers: Drive image installations use thirdparty programs such as Ghost or work with a System Restore image created within Windows. Local installation from USB is possible if you copy the Windows .iso file to the USB flash drive (if the drive is big enough) and obtain the USB/DVD download tool from the Microsoft website. A multiboot installation means that more than one operating system is being installed to the same drive. One or both of these could possibly be unattended installations. Remember that with multiboot installs, each OS should inhabit its own primary partition.
Question 36 of 45
36. Question
Which of the following is the best source of information about malicious software detected on a computer?
Correct
New malicious software (malware) is always being created. Because of this, the best place to find information about spyware, a virus, rootkit, ransomware, or other malware is at a place that can be updated often and easily: the anti-malware company’s website.
Incorrect Answers: Operating system documentation usually does not have this kind of information. In addition, the OS documents and the anti-spyware readme.txt file will be outdated soon after they are written. Never trust in what a user has to say about malware. The user is not the person who would remove it —a technician would.
Incorrect
New malicious software (malware) is always being created. Because of this, the best place to find information about spyware, a virus, rootkit, ransomware, or other malware is at a place that can be updated often and easily: the anti-malware company’s website.
Incorrect Answers: Operating system documentation usually does not have this kind of information. In addition, the OS documents and the anti-spyware readme.txt file will be outdated soon after they are written. Never trust in what a user has to say about malware. The user is not the person who would remove it —a technician would.
Unattempted
New malicious software (malware) is always being created. Because of this, the best place to find information about spyware, a virus, rootkit, ransomware, or other malware is at a place that can be updated often and easily: the anti-malware company’s website.
Incorrect Answers: Operating system documentation usually does not have this kind of information. In addition, the OS documents and the anti-spyware readme.txt file will be outdated soon after they are written. Never trust in what a user has to say about malware. The user is not the person who would remove it —a technician would.
Question 37 of 45
37. Question
Your boss asks you to troubleshoot a computer with a virus. Which of the following statements best describes the first step you should take to remedy the problem?
Correct
The first thing you should do is identify the malware. (By the way, if the computer is on the network, disconnect it first.) Then you can research that malware and any possible cures by searching the Internet and accessing your AV provider’s website.
Incorrect Answers: Rolling back drivers should not be necessary, especially if you find it necessary to run a System Restore at some point. Remember your best practices procedure for malware removal!
Incorrect
The first thing you should do is identify the malware. (By the way, if the computer is on the network, disconnect it first.) Then you can research that malware and any possible cures by searching the Internet and accessing your AV provider’s website.
Incorrect Answers: Rolling back drivers should not be necessary, especially if you find it necessary to run a System Restore at some point. Remember your best practices procedure for malware removal!
Unattempted
The first thing you should do is identify the malware. (By the way, if the computer is on the network, disconnect it first.) Then you can research that malware and any possible cures by searching the Internet and accessing your AV provider’s website.
Incorrect Answers: Rolling back drivers should not be necessary, especially if you find it necessary to run a System Restore at some point. Remember your best practices procedure for malware removal!
Question 38 of 45
38. Question
Which of the following is the most important piece of information needed to connect to a specific wireless network?
Correct
The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the most important piece of information required to connect to a wireless network; it is the name of the wireless network.
Incorrect Answers: The wireless channel number isn’t necessarily needed; the wireless access point (WAP) might autonegotiate the channel. Also, MAC address filtering is not enabled by default, so the MAC address might not be needed. (In fact, the admin would enter this at the wireless access point, not from the client computer.) You need the administrator password only if you want to make configuration changes to the wireless access point. For example, if you want to implement MAC filtering, you would have to log in to the WAP with an admin password to configure it.
Incorrect
The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the most important piece of information required to connect to a wireless network; it is the name of the wireless network.
Incorrect Answers: The wireless channel number isn’t necessarily needed; the wireless access point (WAP) might autonegotiate the channel. Also, MAC address filtering is not enabled by default, so the MAC address might not be needed. (In fact, the admin would enter this at the wireless access point, not from the client computer.) You need the administrator password only if you want to make configuration changes to the wireless access point. For example, if you want to implement MAC filtering, you would have to log in to the WAP with an admin password to configure it.
Unattempted
The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the most important piece of information required to connect to a wireless network; it is the name of the wireless network.
Incorrect Answers: The wireless channel number isn’t necessarily needed; the wireless access point (WAP) might autonegotiate the channel. Also, MAC address filtering is not enabled by default, so the MAC address might not be needed. (In fact, the admin would enter this at the wireless access point, not from the client computer.) You need the administrator password only if you want to make configuration changes to the wireless access point. For example, if you want to implement MAC filtering, you would have to log in to the WAP with an admin password to configure it.
Question 39 of 45
39. Question
A customer wants users to be able to store additional files in a cloud-based manner when necessary and remove them when they are not needed anymore. What is this known as?
Correct
On-demand means that a customer can get access to cloud-based services 24 hours a day, 7 days a week and that the customer can get additional space if needed on a temporary basis. This links with scalability to a certain extent.
Incorrect Answers: Resource pooling occurs when resources (RAM and CPU), servers, and infrastructure are shared by multiple customers. However, shared resources, in general, are resources that are shared for use by remote users. Virtual application streaming refers to applications (such as email clients) that are served from a cloud provider and run within a virtual machine or instance of some sort. Synchronization applications are programs that will aid in the synchronization of data between a client and a server on the cloud. For example, a single synchronization program might take care of the sync of data for several programs, such as email, calendar, and contacts.
Incorrect
On-demand means that a customer can get access to cloud-based services 24 hours a day, 7 days a week and that the customer can get additional space if needed on a temporary basis. This links with scalability to a certain extent.
Incorrect Answers: Resource pooling occurs when resources (RAM and CPU), servers, and infrastructure are shared by multiple customers. However, shared resources, in general, are resources that are shared for use by remote users. Virtual application streaming refers to applications (such as email clients) that are served from a cloud provider and run within a virtual machine or instance of some sort. Synchronization applications are programs that will aid in the synchronization of data between a client and a server on the cloud. For example, a single synchronization program might take care of the sync of data for several programs, such as email, calendar, and contacts.
Unattempted
On-demand means that a customer can get access to cloud-based services 24 hours a day, 7 days a week and that the customer can get additional space if needed on a temporary basis. This links with scalability to a certain extent.
Incorrect Answers: Resource pooling occurs when resources (RAM and CPU), servers, and infrastructure are shared by multiple customers. However, shared resources, in general, are resources that are shared for use by remote users. Virtual application streaming refers to applications (such as email clients) that are served from a cloud provider and run within a virtual machine or instance of some sort. Synchronization applications are programs that will aid in the synchronization of data between a client and a server on the cloud. For example, a single synchronization program might take care of the sync of data for several programs, such as email, calendar, and contacts.
Question 40 of 45
40. Question
Which of the following steps can be performed to ensure that all external traffic to your website is directed through a firewall to the right computer?
Correct
In this scenario, your organization is running a web server on the LAN. Your job is to make sure that all clients outside your network on the Internet that are attempting to access the web server can do so. You must configure port forwarding for this to work. The HTTPS requests, or whatever port the clients use to access the web server (perhaps 443, but not necessarily), should be forwarded to the IP address and port of the web server on your network.
Incorrect Answers: Exceptions are meant to allow certain computers access in or out of the firewall, but this would give the external clients too much access. You should streamline this configuration so that the external traffic is all directed to your web server, and port forwarding is the best way to do this. NAT, which stands for Network Address Translation, is used to match up the private IP address numbers of your internal computers to the external public IPs they attempt to connect to; it protects the private IP identity of the internal computers. However, it’s actually not the interior traffic you are concerned with. Instead, you are concerned with the external traffic trying to get into your network and visit your web server, and the web server only.
Incorrect
In this scenario, your organization is running a web server on the LAN. Your job is to make sure that all clients outside your network on the Internet that are attempting to access the web server can do so. You must configure port forwarding for this to work. The HTTPS requests, or whatever port the clients use to access the web server (perhaps 443, but not necessarily), should be forwarded to the IP address and port of the web server on your network.
Incorrect Answers: Exceptions are meant to allow certain computers access in or out of the firewall, but this would give the external clients too much access. You should streamline this configuration so that the external traffic is all directed to your web server, and port forwarding is the best way to do this. NAT, which stands for Network Address Translation, is used to match up the private IP address numbers of your internal computers to the external public IPs they attempt to connect to; it protects the private IP identity of the internal computers. However, it’s actually not the interior traffic you are concerned with. Instead, you are concerned with the external traffic trying to get into your network and visit your web server, and the web server only.
Unattempted
In this scenario, your organization is running a web server on the LAN. Your job is to make sure that all clients outside your network on the Internet that are attempting to access the web server can do so. You must configure port forwarding for this to work. The HTTPS requests, or whatever port the clients use to access the web server (perhaps 443, but not necessarily), should be forwarded to the IP address and port of the web server on your network.
Incorrect Answers: Exceptions are meant to allow certain computers access in or out of the firewall, but this would give the external clients too much access. You should streamline this configuration so that the external traffic is all directed to your web server, and port forwarding is the best way to do this. NAT, which stands for Network Address Translation, is used to match up the private IP address numbers of your internal computers to the external public IPs they attempt to connect to; it protects the private IP identity of the internal computers. However, it’s actually not the interior traffic you are concerned with. Instead, you are concerned with the external traffic trying to get into your network and visit your web server, and the web server only.
Question 41 of 45
41. Question
Which Windows utility is used to prepare a drive image for duplication across the network?
Correct
Sysprep is one of the utilities built into Windows for image deployment over the network.
Incorrect Answers: Ghost and Image Clone are thirdparty offerings. Robocopy copies entire directories (in the same physical order, too). Sysprep preps the system to be moved as an image file.
Incorrect
Sysprep is one of the utilities built into Windows for image deployment over the network.
Incorrect Answers: Ghost and Image Clone are thirdparty offerings. Robocopy copies entire directories (in the same physical order, too). Sysprep preps the system to be moved as an image file.
Unattempted
Sysprep is one of the utilities built into Windows for image deployment over the network.
Incorrect Answers: Ghost and Image Clone are thirdparty offerings. Robocopy copies entire directories (in the same physical order, too). Sysprep preps the system to be moved as an image file.
Question 42 of 45
42. Question
You are working for a company as a roaming PC tech and have been assigned work by a network administrator. The admin notifies you that the company is experiencing a DDoS attack. Half a dozen internal Windows PCs are the source of the traffic. The admin gives you the Windows computer names and tells you that they must be scanned and cleaned immediately. Which of the following effects to the PCs should you as a PC technician focus on fixing? (Select the two best answers.)
Correct
The Windows PCs have probably been infected by a worm and have been compromised and turned into zombies (bots). Trojans could also be involved in this scenario. The Windows PCs are probably part of a botnet that includes other computers as well. The botnet is orchestrated by a master computer that initiates the DDoS (distributed denial-of-service) attack. The infections that you as the technician will have to remove include the worm and the zombie program (or script).You might also be informed that the systems need to be isolated, wiped, and re-imaged before they can be used again.
Incorrect Answers: Spyware is software installed on a computer to track the user/computer. Ransomware is malware that is used to encrypt the files on a user’s computer. A virus is similar to a worm, but it does not self-replicate to other systems; also, the worm (or Trojan) is more commonly used as a mechanism to deliver a zombie script or other payload. You as a PC technician won’t be able to do much about the entire botnet.
Incorrect
The Windows PCs have probably been infected by a worm and have been compromised and turned into zombies (bots). Trojans could also be involved in this scenario. The Windows PCs are probably part of a botnet that includes other computers as well. The botnet is orchestrated by a master computer that initiates the DDoS (distributed denial-of-service) attack. The infections that you as the technician will have to remove include the worm and the zombie program (or script).You might also be informed that the systems need to be isolated, wiped, and re-imaged before they can be used again.
Incorrect Answers: Spyware is software installed on a computer to track the user/computer. Ransomware is malware that is used to encrypt the files on a user’s computer. A virus is similar to a worm, but it does not self-replicate to other systems; also, the worm (or Trojan) is more commonly used as a mechanism to deliver a zombie script or other payload. You as a PC technician won’t be able to do much about the entire botnet.
Unattempted
The Windows PCs have probably been infected by a worm and have been compromised and turned into zombies (bots). Trojans could also be involved in this scenario. The Windows PCs are probably part of a botnet that includes other computers as well. The botnet is orchestrated by a master computer that initiates the DDoS (distributed denial-of-service) attack. The infections that you as the technician will have to remove include the worm and the zombie program (or script).You might also be informed that the systems need to be isolated, wiped, and re-imaged before they can be used again.
Incorrect Answers: Spyware is software installed on a computer to track the user/computer. Ransomware is malware that is used to encrypt the files on a user’s computer. A virus is similar to a worm, but it does not self-replicate to other systems; also, the worm (or Trojan) is more commonly used as a mechanism to deliver a zombie script or other payload. You as a PC technician won’t be able to do much about the entire botnet.
Question 43 of 45
43. Question
User A is part of the Users Group on a Windows computer. User A attempts to access files on a UNC path: \\server\fileshare. Fileshare has the following share permissions: Administrators—Full Control Users—Read Only Guests—No Access However, the directory on the hard drive where the share is located has the following permissions: Administrators—Full Control Users—Change Guests—No Access Which level of access will the account User A have?
Correct
User A will end up having the Read Only level of access to the share. Generally, a user gets the more restrictive level of access. The only thing that is different between the share’s permissions and the parent directory’s permissions is the level of control for the Users group. Normally, a share will obtain its permissions from the parent folder—that is, unless that option is unchecked in the properties of the folder. Then the folder can be reconfigured for whatever permissions an admin wants to set for it. That must be what happened in this scenario.
Incorrect Answers: Administrators get Full Control access to almost everything by default. And Guests get No Access to just about everything by default. So the only possibilities for this question are Change and Read Only. Again, in general, the typical Standard user account receives the more restrictive level of permissions.
Incorrect
User A will end up having the Read Only level of access to the share. Generally, a user gets the more restrictive level of access. The only thing that is different between the share’s permissions and the parent directory’s permissions is the level of control for the Users group. Normally, a share will obtain its permissions from the parent folder—that is, unless that option is unchecked in the properties of the folder. Then the folder can be reconfigured for whatever permissions an admin wants to set for it. That must be what happened in this scenario.
Incorrect Answers: Administrators get Full Control access to almost everything by default. And Guests get No Access to just about everything by default. So the only possibilities for this question are Change and Read Only. Again, in general, the typical Standard user account receives the more restrictive level of permissions.
Unattempted
User A will end up having the Read Only level of access to the share. Generally, a user gets the more restrictive level of access. The only thing that is different between the share’s permissions and the parent directory’s permissions is the level of control for the Users group. Normally, a share will obtain its permissions from the parent folder—that is, unless that option is unchecked in the properties of the folder. Then the folder can be reconfigured for whatever permissions an admin wants to set for it. That must be what happened in this scenario.
Incorrect Answers: Administrators get Full Control access to almost everything by default. And Guests get No Access to just about everything by default. So the only possibilities for this question are Change and Read Only. Again, in general, the typical Standard user account receives the more restrictive level of permissions.
Question 44 of 45
44. Question
A color laser printer produces images that are tinted blue. Which of the following steps should be performed to address this problem?
Correct
After you install a printer, it is important to calibrate it for color and orientation, especially if you are installing a color laser printer or an inkjet printer. These calibration tools are usually built in to the printer’s software and can be accessed from Windows, or you can access them from the printer’s display.
Incorrect Answers: If a toner cartridge needs to be cleaned, it probably has a leak and should be replaced. The fusing assembly needs to be changed only when it fails. Many printers will indicate when the fuser is at 20 percent life and needs to be replaced soon. If the fuser fails, the toner will fail to stick to the paper. The primary corona wire can be cleaned; it is near the drum. Cleaning it can help with other types of print quality problems, such as lines and smearing, though on many printers this is not necessary.
Incorrect
After you install a printer, it is important to calibrate it for color and orientation, especially if you are installing a color laser printer or an inkjet printer. These calibration tools are usually built in to the printer’s software and can be accessed from Windows, or you can access them from the printer’s display.
Incorrect Answers: If a toner cartridge needs to be cleaned, it probably has a leak and should be replaced. The fusing assembly needs to be changed only when it fails. Many printers will indicate when the fuser is at 20 percent life and needs to be replaced soon. If the fuser fails, the toner will fail to stick to the paper. The primary corona wire can be cleaned; it is near the drum. Cleaning it can help with other types of print quality problems, such as lines and smearing, though on many printers this is not necessary.
Unattempted
After you install a printer, it is important to calibrate it for color and orientation, especially if you are installing a color laser printer or an inkjet printer. These calibration tools are usually built in to the printer’s software and can be accessed from Windows, or you can access them from the printer’s display.
Incorrect Answers: If a toner cartridge needs to be cleaned, it probably has a leak and should be replaced. The fusing assembly needs to be changed only when it fails. Many printers will indicate when the fuser is at 20 percent life and needs to be replaced soon. If the fuser fails, the toner will fail to stick to the paper. The primary corona wire can be cleaned; it is near the drum. Cleaning it can help with other types of print quality problems, such as lines and smearing, though on many printers this is not necessary.
Question 45 of 45
45. Question
You are troubleshooting a computer that is no longer able to browse the Internet. The user says that the computer worked before he went on vacation. However, now the user is able to navigate the local intranet but cannot connect to any outside sites. You ping a well-known website on the Internet by name, but you receive no replies. Then you ping the website’s IP address, and you do receive a reply. Which of the following commands will fix the problem?
Correct
You should run ipconfig /flushdns in an attempt to fix the problem. The problem could be that the DNS cache on the client computer is outdated and cannot associate Internet domain names with their corresponding IP addresses. So you run ipconfig /flushdns and potentially ipconfig /registerdns (or computer restart) to fix the problem. That clears the DNS cache of name resolutions and forces the client to request new DNS information from a DNS server either on the Internet or within the company.
Incorrect Answers: Ipconfig /all shows in-depth information about the network adapter’s TCP/IP configuration. If there is an incorrect DNS server configuration, this information will help you identify it but won’t help to solve the problem. Ipconfig/release is used to remove a DHCP-obtained IP address from a network adapter. (Ipconfig/renew is often run afterward to get a new IP.) Ipconfig/setclassid is a potential solution because it allows for an additional set of DHCP options for each class ID, including gateway address, DNS server address, and so on. These options are often set at the DHCP server, and you would need to know the class ID number that you wish to use. However, it is unlikely from this scenario that the class ID was ever changed. Due to the time the user was away from the computer (on vacation), it is more likely that the DNS cache needs to be purged.
Incorrect
You should run ipconfig /flushdns in an attempt to fix the problem. The problem could be that the DNS cache on the client computer is outdated and cannot associate Internet domain names with their corresponding IP addresses. So you run ipconfig /flushdns and potentially ipconfig /registerdns (or computer restart) to fix the problem. That clears the DNS cache of name resolutions and forces the client to request new DNS information from a DNS server either on the Internet or within the company.
Incorrect Answers: Ipconfig /all shows in-depth information about the network adapter’s TCP/IP configuration. If there is an incorrect DNS server configuration, this information will help you identify it but won’t help to solve the problem. Ipconfig/release is used to remove a DHCP-obtained IP address from a network adapter. (Ipconfig/renew is often run afterward to get a new IP.) Ipconfig/setclassid is a potential solution because it allows for an additional set of DHCP options for each class ID, including gateway address, DNS server address, and so on. These options are often set at the DHCP server, and you would need to know the class ID number that you wish to use. However, it is unlikely from this scenario that the class ID was ever changed. Due to the time the user was away from the computer (on vacation), it is more likely that the DNS cache needs to be purged.
Unattempted
You should run ipconfig /flushdns in an attempt to fix the problem. The problem could be that the DNS cache on the client computer is outdated and cannot associate Internet domain names with their corresponding IP addresses. So you run ipconfig /flushdns and potentially ipconfig /registerdns (or computer restart) to fix the problem. That clears the DNS cache of name resolutions and forces the client to request new DNS information from a DNS server either on the Internet or within the company.
Incorrect Answers: Ipconfig /all shows in-depth information about the network adapter’s TCP/IP configuration. If there is an incorrect DNS server configuration, this information will help you identify it but won’t help to solve the problem. Ipconfig/release is used to remove a DHCP-obtained IP address from a network adapter. (Ipconfig/renew is often run afterward to get a new IP.) Ipconfig/setclassid is a potential solution because it allows for an additional set of DHCP options for each class ID, including gateway address, DNS server address, and so on. These options are often set at the DHCP server, and you would need to know the class ID number that you wish to use. However, it is unlikely from this scenario that the class ID was ever changed. Due to the time the user was away from the computer (on vacation), it is more likely that the DNS cache needs to be purged.
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