You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:
Your results are here!! for" CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Test 5 "
0 of 60 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0
Average score
Your score
CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002)
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
You can review your answers by clicking view questions. Important Note : Open Reference Documentation Links in New Tab (Right Click and Open in New Tab).
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Answered
Review
Question 1 of 60
1. Question
You are working as a cybersecurity analyst, and you just received a report that many of your servers are experiencing slow response times due to what appears to be a DDoS attack. Which of the following actions should you undertake?
Correct
OBJ-4.1: Your first action as an analyst would be to inform management of the issues being experienced so a decision on the proper course of action can be determined. If you shut down the interfaces on the affected servers, you would make the situation worse by effectively ensuring a denial of service condition. Taking no action is not suitable either, as this would allow the DDoS to continue indefinitely. Informing the users of the affected systems may be acceptable, but this should be a managerial decision since it would be publicly disclosing that your systems were under attack.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.1: Your first action as an analyst would be to inform management of the issues being experienced so a decision on the proper course of action can be determined. If you shut down the interfaces on the affected servers, you would make the situation worse by effectively ensuring a denial of service condition. Taking no action is not suitable either, as this would allow the DDoS to continue indefinitely. Informing the users of the affected systems may be acceptable, but this should be a managerial decision since it would be publicly disclosing that your systems were under attack.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.1: Your first action as an analyst would be to inform management of the issues being experienced so a decision on the proper course of action can be determined. If you shut down the interfaces on the affected servers, you would make the situation worse by effectively ensuring a denial of service condition. Taking no action is not suitable either, as this would allow the DDoS to continue indefinitely. Informing the users of the affected systems may be acceptable, but this should be a managerial decision since it would be publicly disclosing that your systems were under attack.
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
You are trying to find a rogue device on your wired network. Which of the following options would NOT help find the device?
Correct
OBJ-1.4: War walking is conducted by walking around a build while locating wireless networks and devices. War walking will not help find a wired rogue device. Checking valid MAC addresses against a known list, scanning for new systems or devices, and physically surveying for unexpected systems can be used to find rogue devices on a wired network.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: War walking is conducted by walking around a build while locating wireless networks and devices. War walking will not help find a wired rogue device. Checking valid MAC addresses against a known list, scanning for new systems or devices, and physically surveying for unexpected systems can be used to find rogue devices on a wired network.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: War walking is conducted by walking around a build while locating wireless networks and devices. War walking will not help find a wired rogue device. Checking valid MAC addresses against a known list, scanning for new systems or devices, and physically surveying for unexpected systems can be used to find rogue devices on a wired network.
Question 3 of 60
3. Question
What command should a forensic analyst use to make a forensic disk image of a hard drive?
Correct
OBJ-4.4: The dd tool is used to make bit by bit copies of a disk, drive, or partition. Once the image is created using dd, a hash of the file should be made and placed into evidence to validate the integrity of the disk image that was created. This will ensure that no modification occurs between the collection and analysis of the disk image. The wget command is a command-line utility for downloading files from the Internet. The touch command is a standard command used in the UNIX/Linux operating system used to create, change, and modify timestamps of a file. The rm command is used to delete one or more files or directories.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.4: The dd tool is used to make bit by bit copies of a disk, drive, or partition. Once the image is created using dd, a hash of the file should be made and placed into evidence to validate the integrity of the disk image that was created. This will ensure that no modification occurs between the collection and analysis of the disk image. The wget command is a command-line utility for downloading files from the Internet. The touch command is a standard command used in the UNIX/Linux operating system used to create, change, and modify timestamps of a file. The rm command is used to delete one or more files or directories.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.4: The dd tool is used to make bit by bit copies of a disk, drive, or partition. Once the image is created using dd, a hash of the file should be made and placed into evidence to validate the integrity of the disk image that was created. This will ensure that no modification occurs between the collection and analysis of the disk image. The wget command is a command-line utility for downloading files from the Internet. The touch command is a standard command used in the UNIX/Linux operating system used to create, change, and modify timestamps of a file. The rm command is used to delete one or more files or directories.
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
Which of the following is the leading cause for cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and XML injection attacks?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: A primary vector for attacking applications is to exploit faulty input validation. The input could include user data entered into a form or URL, passed by another application or link. This is heavily exploited by cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and XML injection attacks. Directory traversal is the practice of accessing a file from a location that the user is unauthorized to access. The attacker does this by ordering an application to backtrack through the directory path to read or execute a file in a parent directory. In a file inclusion attack, the attacker adds a file to a web app or website’s running process. The file is either constructed to be malicious or manipulated to serve the attacker’s malicious purposes. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is one of the most powerful input validation exploits. XSS involves a trusted site, a client browsing the trusted site, and the attacker’s site.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: A primary vector for attacking applications is to exploit faulty input validation. The input could include user data entered into a form or URL, passed by another application or link. This is heavily exploited by cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and XML injection attacks. Directory traversal is the practice of accessing a file from a location that the user is unauthorized to access. The attacker does this by ordering an application to backtrack through the directory path to read or execute a file in a parent directory. In a file inclusion attack, the attacker adds a file to a web app or website’s running process. The file is either constructed to be malicious or manipulated to serve the attacker’s malicious purposes. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is one of the most powerful input validation exploits. XSS involves a trusted site, a client browsing the trusted site, and the attacker’s site.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: A primary vector for attacking applications is to exploit faulty input validation. The input could include user data entered into a form or URL, passed by another application or link. This is heavily exploited by cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and XML injection attacks. Directory traversal is the practice of accessing a file from a location that the user is unauthorized to access. The attacker does this by ordering an application to backtrack through the directory path to read or execute a file in a parent directory. In a file inclusion attack, the attacker adds a file to a web app or website’s running process. The file is either constructed to be malicious or manipulated to serve the attacker’s malicious purposes. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is one of the most powerful input validation exploits. XSS involves a trusted site, a client browsing the trusted site, and the attacker’s site.
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
A cybersecurity analyst is attempting to perform an active reconnaissance technique to audit their company’s security controls. Which DNS assessment technique would be classified as active?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: DNS zone transfer, also sometimes known by the inducing DNS query type AXFR, is a DNS transaction type. It is one of the many mechanisms available for administrators to replicate DNS databases across a set of DNS servers. DNS zone transfers are an active technique. Performing a whois query is a passive reconnaissance technique that performs a query of the databases that store the registered users or assignees of an Internet resource, such as a domain name, an IP address block, or an autonomous system, but is also used for a wider range of other information. Performing a DNS forward and reverse lookup zones is an active technique that allows the resolution of names to IP addresses and IP addresses to names. This can be conducted as a passive technique. Maltego is used for open-source intelligence and forensics. It focuses on providing a library for data discovery from open sources and visualizing that information in a graph format suitable for link analysis and data mining. It collects this information passively since it can acquire the information from whois lookup servers, a DNS lookup tool using public DNS servers, or even emails and hostnames one can acquire from TheHarvester.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: DNS zone transfer, also sometimes known by the inducing DNS query type AXFR, is a DNS transaction type. It is one of the many mechanisms available for administrators to replicate DNS databases across a set of DNS servers. DNS zone transfers are an active technique. Performing a whois query is a passive reconnaissance technique that performs a query of the databases that store the registered users or assignees of an Internet resource, such as a domain name, an IP address block, or an autonomous system, but is also used for a wider range of other information. Performing a DNS forward and reverse lookup zones is an active technique that allows the resolution of names to IP addresses and IP addresses to names. This can be conducted as a passive technique. Maltego is used for open-source intelligence and forensics. It focuses on providing a library for data discovery from open sources and visualizing that information in a graph format suitable for link analysis and data mining. It collects this information passively since it can acquire the information from whois lookup servers, a DNS lookup tool using public DNS servers, or even emails and hostnames one can acquire from TheHarvester.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: DNS zone transfer, also sometimes known by the inducing DNS query type AXFR, is a DNS transaction type. It is one of the many mechanisms available for administrators to replicate DNS databases across a set of DNS servers. DNS zone transfers are an active technique. Performing a whois query is a passive reconnaissance technique that performs a query of the databases that store the registered users or assignees of an Internet resource, such as a domain name, an IP address block, or an autonomous system, but is also used for a wider range of other information. Performing a DNS forward and reverse lookup zones is an active technique that allows the resolution of names to IP addresses and IP addresses to names. This can be conducted as a passive technique. Maltego is used for open-source intelligence and forensics. It focuses on providing a library for data discovery from open sources and visualizing that information in a graph format suitable for link analysis and data mining. It collects this information passively since it can acquire the information from whois lookup servers, a DNS lookup tool using public DNS servers, or even emails and hostnames one can acquire from TheHarvester.
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
Which analysis framework provides a graphical depiction of the attacker’s approach relative to a kill chain?
Correct
OBJ-1.2: The Diamond Model provides an excellent methodology for communicating cyber events and allowing analysts to derive mitigation strategies implicitly. The Diamond Model is constructed around a graphical representation of an attacker’s behavior. The MITRE ATT&CK framework provides explicit pseudo-code examples for detecting or mitigating a given threat within a network and ties specific behaviors back to individual actors. The Lockheed Martin cyber kill chain provides a general life cycle description of how attacks occur but do not deal with the specifics of how to mitigate. OpenIOC contains a depth of research on APTs but does not integrate the detections and mitigation strategy.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.2: The Diamond Model provides an excellent methodology for communicating cyber events and allowing analysts to derive mitigation strategies implicitly. The Diamond Model is constructed around a graphical representation of an attacker’s behavior. The MITRE ATT&CK framework provides explicit pseudo-code examples for detecting or mitigating a given threat within a network and ties specific behaviors back to individual actors. The Lockheed Martin cyber kill chain provides a general life cycle description of how attacks occur but do not deal with the specifics of how to mitigate. OpenIOC contains a depth of research on APTs but does not integrate the detections and mitigation strategy.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.2: The Diamond Model provides an excellent methodology for communicating cyber events and allowing analysts to derive mitigation strategies implicitly. The Diamond Model is constructed around a graphical representation of an attacker’s behavior. The MITRE ATT&CK framework provides explicit pseudo-code examples for detecting or mitigating a given threat within a network and ties specific behaviors back to individual actors. The Lockheed Martin cyber kill chain provides a general life cycle description of how attacks occur but do not deal with the specifics of how to mitigate. OpenIOC contains a depth of research on APTs but does not integrate the detections and mitigation strategy.
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
Which type of media sanitization would you classify degaussing as?
Correct
OBJ-4.2: Degaussing is classified as a form of purging. Purging eliminates information from being feasibly recovered even in a laboratory environment. Purging includes degaussing, encryption of the data with the destruction of its encryption key, and other non-destructive techniques. Some generic magnetic storage devices can be reused after the degaussing process has finished, such as VHS tapes and some older backup tapes. For this reason, though, the technique of degaussing is classified as purging and not destruction, even though hard drives are rendered unusable after being degaussed. Clearing data prevents data from being retrieved without the use of state of the art laboratory techniques. Clearing often involves overwriting data one or more times with repetitive or randomized data. Destroying data is designed not merely to render the information unrecoverable but also to hinder any reuse of the media itself. Destruction is a physical process that may involve shredding media to pieces, disintegrating it into parts, pulverizing it to powder, or incinerating it to ash. Erasing or deleting is considered a normal operation of a computer, which erases the data file’s pointer on a storage device. Erasing and deleting are easily reversed, and the data can be recovered with commercially available or open-source tools.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: Degaussing is classified as a form of purging. Purging eliminates information from being feasibly recovered even in a laboratory environment. Purging includes degaussing, encryption of the data with the destruction of its encryption key, and other non-destructive techniques. Some generic magnetic storage devices can be reused after the degaussing process has finished, such as VHS tapes and some older backup tapes. For this reason, though, the technique of degaussing is classified as purging and not destruction, even though hard drives are rendered unusable after being degaussed. Clearing data prevents data from being retrieved without the use of state of the art laboratory techniques. Clearing often involves overwriting data one or more times with repetitive or randomized data. Destroying data is designed not merely to render the information unrecoverable but also to hinder any reuse of the media itself. Destruction is a physical process that may involve shredding media to pieces, disintegrating it into parts, pulverizing it to powder, or incinerating it to ash. Erasing or deleting is considered a normal operation of a computer, which erases the data file’s pointer on a storage device. Erasing and deleting are easily reversed, and the data can be recovered with commercially available or open-source tools.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: Degaussing is classified as a form of purging. Purging eliminates information from being feasibly recovered even in a laboratory environment. Purging includes degaussing, encryption of the data with the destruction of its encryption key, and other non-destructive techniques. Some generic magnetic storage devices can be reused after the degaussing process has finished, such as VHS tapes and some older backup tapes. For this reason, though, the technique of degaussing is classified as purging and not destruction, even though hard drives are rendered unusable after being degaussed. Clearing data prevents data from being retrieved without the use of state of the art laboratory techniques. Clearing often involves overwriting data one or more times with repetitive or randomized data. Destroying data is designed not merely to render the information unrecoverable but also to hinder any reuse of the media itself. Destruction is a physical process that may involve shredding media to pieces, disintegrating it into parts, pulverizing it to powder, or incinerating it to ash. Erasing or deleting is considered a normal operation of a computer, which erases the data file’s pointer on a storage device. Erasing and deleting are easily reversed, and the data can be recovered with commercially available or open-source tools.
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
Jonathan’s team completed the first phase of their incident response process. They are currently assessing the time to recover from the incident. Using the NIST recoverability effort categories, the team has decided to predict the time to recover, but this requires additional resources. How should he categorize this using the NIST model?
Correct
OBJ-4.2: Based on the scenario given, the best choice is supplemented. The NIST keys are to remember that each level has additional unknowns and resources that increase the severity level from regular to supplemented then extended. Non-recoverable situations existed when whatever happened cannot be remediated. In this case, an investigation would be started. In a non-governmental agency, this phase might even include notifying law enforcement. This question may seem beyond the scope of the exam. Still, the objectives allow for “other examples of technologies, processes, or tasks about each objective may also be included on the exam although not listed or covered” in the objectives’ bulletized lists. The exam tests the equivalent of 4 years of hands-on experience in a technical cybersecurity job role. The content examples listed in the objectives are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of this examination’s content. Therefore, questions like this are fair game on test day. That said, your goal is not to score 100% on the exam; it is to pass it. Don’t let questions like this throw you off on test day. If you aren’t sure, take your best guess and move on!
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: Based on the scenario given, the best choice is supplemented. The NIST keys are to remember that each level has additional unknowns and resources that increase the severity level from regular to supplemented then extended. Non-recoverable situations existed when whatever happened cannot be remediated. In this case, an investigation would be started. In a non-governmental agency, this phase might even include notifying law enforcement. This question may seem beyond the scope of the exam. Still, the objectives allow for “other examples of technologies, processes, or tasks about each objective may also be included on the exam although not listed or covered” in the objectives’ bulletized lists. The exam tests the equivalent of 4 years of hands-on experience in a technical cybersecurity job role. The content examples listed in the objectives are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of this examination’s content. Therefore, questions like this are fair game on test day. That said, your goal is not to score 100% on the exam; it is to pass it. Don’t let questions like this throw you off on test day. If you aren’t sure, take your best guess and move on!
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: Based on the scenario given, the best choice is supplemented. The NIST keys are to remember that each level has additional unknowns and resources that increase the severity level from regular to supplemented then extended. Non-recoverable situations existed when whatever happened cannot be remediated. In this case, an investigation would be started. In a non-governmental agency, this phase might even include notifying law enforcement. This question may seem beyond the scope of the exam. Still, the objectives allow for “other examples of technologies, processes, or tasks about each objective may also be included on the exam although not listed or covered” in the objectives’ bulletized lists. The exam tests the equivalent of 4 years of hands-on experience in a technical cybersecurity job role. The content examples listed in the objectives are meant to clarify the test objectives and should not be construed as a comprehensive listing of this examination’s content. Therefore, questions like this are fair game on test day. That said, your goal is not to score 100% on the exam; it is to pass it. Don’t let questions like this throw you off on test day. If you aren’t sure, take your best guess and move on!
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
Which of the following attacks would most likely be used to create an inadvertent disclosure of information from an organization’s database?
Correct
OBJ-1.7: A SQL injection poses the most direct and more impactful threat to an organization’s database. A SQL injection could allow the attacker to execute remote commands on the database server and lead to sensitive information disclosure. A buffer overflow attack attempts to overwrite the memory buffer to send additional data into adjacent memory locations. A buffer overflow attack might target a database server, but it isn’t intended to disclose information directly. Instead, a buffer overflow attack may be used to gain initial access to a server and allow for other malicious code running. A denial of service targets the availability of the information by attempting to take the server offline. A cross-site scripting attack typically is focused on the user, not the server or database.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.7: A SQL injection poses the most direct and more impactful threat to an organization’s database. A SQL injection could allow the attacker to execute remote commands on the database server and lead to sensitive information disclosure. A buffer overflow attack attempts to overwrite the memory buffer to send additional data into adjacent memory locations. A buffer overflow attack might target a database server, but it isn’t intended to disclose information directly. Instead, a buffer overflow attack may be used to gain initial access to a server and allow for other malicious code running. A denial of service targets the availability of the information by attempting to take the server offline. A cross-site scripting attack typically is focused on the user, not the server or database.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.7: A SQL injection poses the most direct and more impactful threat to an organization’s database. A SQL injection could allow the attacker to execute remote commands on the database server and lead to sensitive information disclosure. A buffer overflow attack attempts to overwrite the memory buffer to send additional data into adjacent memory locations. A buffer overflow attack might target a database server, but it isn’t intended to disclose information directly. Instead, a buffer overflow attack may be used to gain initial access to a server and allow for other malicious code running. A denial of service targets the availability of the information by attempting to take the server offline. A cross-site scripting attack typically is focused on the user, not the server or database.
Question 10 of 60
10. Question
Which role validates the user’s identity when using SAML for authentication?
Correct
OBJ-2.2: The IdP provides the validation of the user’s identity. Security assertions markup language (SAML) is an XML-based framework for exchanging security-related information such as user authentication, entitlement, and attributes. SAML is often used in conjunction with SOAP. SAML is a solution for providing single sign-on (SSO) and federated identity management. It allows a service provider (SP) to establish a trust relationship with an identity provider (IdP) so that the SP can trust the identity of a user (the principal) without the user having to authenticate directly with the SP. The principal’s User Agent (typically a browser) requests a resource from the service provider (SP). The resource host can also be referred to as the relying party (RP). If the user agent does not already have a valid session, the SP redirects the user agent to the identity provider (IdP). The IdP requests the principal’s credentials if not already signed in and, if correct, provides a SAML response containing one or more assertions. The SP verifies the signature(s) and (if accepted) establishes a session and provides access to the resource.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.2: The IdP provides the validation of the user’s identity. Security assertions markup language (SAML) is an XML-based framework for exchanging security-related information such as user authentication, entitlement, and attributes. SAML is often used in conjunction with SOAP. SAML is a solution for providing single sign-on (SSO) and federated identity management. It allows a service provider (SP) to establish a trust relationship with an identity provider (IdP) so that the SP can trust the identity of a user (the principal) without the user having to authenticate directly with the SP. The principal’s User Agent (typically a browser) requests a resource from the service provider (SP). The resource host can also be referred to as the relying party (RP). If the user agent does not already have a valid session, the SP redirects the user agent to the identity provider (IdP). The IdP requests the principal’s credentials if not already signed in and, if correct, provides a SAML response containing one or more assertions. The SP verifies the signature(s) and (if accepted) establishes a session and provides access to the resource.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.2: The IdP provides the validation of the user’s identity. Security assertions markup language (SAML) is an XML-based framework for exchanging security-related information such as user authentication, entitlement, and attributes. SAML is often used in conjunction with SOAP. SAML is a solution for providing single sign-on (SSO) and federated identity management. It allows a service provider (SP) to establish a trust relationship with an identity provider (IdP) so that the SP can trust the identity of a user (the principal) without the user having to authenticate directly with the SP. The principal’s User Agent (typically a browser) requests a resource from the service provider (SP). The resource host can also be referred to as the relying party (RP). If the user agent does not already have a valid session, the SP redirects the user agent to the identity provider (IdP). The IdP requests the principal’s credentials if not already signed in and, if correct, provides a SAML response containing one or more assertions. The SP verifies the signature(s) and (if accepted) establishes a session and provides access to the resource.
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
You just completed an nmap scan against a workstation and received the following output:
-=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=-
# nmap skillcertprotraining012
Starting Nmap ( http://nmap.org )
Nmap scan report for skillcertprotraining012 (192.168.14.61)
Not shown: 997 filtered ports
PORT STATE
135/tcp open
139/tcp open
445/tcp open
Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 1.24 seconds
-=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=-
Based on these results, which of the following operating system is most likely being run by this workstation?
Correct
OBJ-1.4: The workstation is most likely running a version of the Windows operating system. Port 139 and port 445 are associated with the SMB file and printer sharing service run by Windows. Since Windows 2000, the NetBIOS file and print sharing has been running over these ports on all Windows systems by default.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: The workstation is most likely running a version of the Windows operating system. Port 139 and port 445 are associated with the SMB file and printer sharing service run by Windows. Since Windows 2000, the NetBIOS file and print sharing has been running over these ports on all Windows systems by default.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: The workstation is most likely running a version of the Windows operating system. Port 139 and port 445 are associated with the SMB file and printer sharing service run by Windows. Since Windows 2000, the NetBIOS file and print sharing has been running over these ports on all Windows systems by default.
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
Which type of monitoring would utilize a network tap?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: Network taps are devices that allow a copy of network traffic to be captured for analysis. They conduct passive network monitoring and visibility without interfering with the network traffic itself. Active monitoring relies on scanning targeted systems, not a network tap. Router-based monitoring would involve looking over the router’s logs and configuration files. SNMP is used to monitor network devices but is considered active monitoring and doesn’t rely on network taps.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: Network taps are devices that allow a copy of network traffic to be captured for analysis. They conduct passive network monitoring and visibility without interfering with the network traffic itself. Active monitoring relies on scanning targeted systems, not a network tap. Router-based monitoring would involve looking over the router’s logs and configuration files. SNMP is used to monitor network devices but is considered active monitoring and doesn’t rely on network taps.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: Network taps are devices that allow a copy of network traffic to be captured for analysis. They conduct passive network monitoring and visibility without interfering with the network traffic itself. Active monitoring relies on scanning targeted systems, not a network tap. Router-based monitoring would involve looking over the router’s logs and configuration files. SNMP is used to monitor network devices but is considered active monitoring and doesn’t rely on network taps.
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
Nick is participating in a security exercise as part of the network defense team for his organization. Which team is Nick playing on?
Correct
OBJ-5.2: Penetration testing can form the basis of functional exercises. One of the best-established means of testing a security system for weaknesses is to play “war game” exercises in which the security personnel split into teams: red, blue, and white. The red team acts as the adversary. The blue team acts as the defenders. The white team acts as the referees and sets the parameters for the exercise. The yellow team is responsible for building tools and architectures in which the exercise will be performed.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.2: Penetration testing can form the basis of functional exercises. One of the best-established means of testing a security system for weaknesses is to play “war game” exercises in which the security personnel split into teams: red, blue, and white. The red team acts as the adversary. The blue team acts as the defenders. The white team acts as the referees and sets the parameters for the exercise. The yellow team is responsible for building tools and architectures in which the exercise will be performed.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.2: Penetration testing can form the basis of functional exercises. One of the best-established means of testing a security system for weaknesses is to play “war game” exercises in which the security personnel split into teams: red, blue, and white. The red team acts as the adversary. The blue team acts as the defenders. The white team acts as the referees and sets the parameters for the exercise. The yellow team is responsible for building tools and architectures in which the exercise will be performed.
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
A cybersecurity analyst is working for a university that is conducting a big data medical research project. The analyst is concerned about the possibility of an inadvertent release of PHI data. Which of the following strategies should be used to prevent this?
Correct
OBJ-5.1: The university should utilize a tokenization approach to prevent an inadvertent release of the PHI data. In a tokenization approach, all or part of data in a field is replaced with a randomly generated token. That token is then stored with the original value on a token server or token vault, separate from the production database. This is an example of a deidentification control and should be used since the personally identifiable medical data is not needed to be retained after ingesting it for the research project; only the medical data itself is needed. While using DevSecOps can improve the overall security posture of the applications being developed in this project, it does not explicitly define a solution to prevent this specific issue making it a less ideal answer choice for the exam. Formal verification methods can be used to prove that none of the AI/ML techniques that process the PHI data could inadvertently leak. Still, the cost and time associated with using these methods make them inappropriate for a system used to conduct research. A formal method uses a mathematical model of a system’s inputs and outputs to prove that the system works as specified in all cases. It is difficult for manual analysis and testing to capture every possible use case scenario in a sufficiently complex system. Formal methods are mostly used with critical systems such as aircraft flight control systems, self-driving car software, and nuclear reactors, not big data research projects. The option provided that recommends utilizing a SaaS model is not realistic. There is unlikely to be a SaaS provider with a product suited to the big data research being done. SaaS products tend to be commoditized software products that are hosted in the cloud. The idea of migrating to a SaaS is a distractor on this exam, which is trying to get you to think about shifting the responsibility for the PHI to the service provider and away from the university, but due to the research nature of the project, this is unlikely to be a valid option in the real world and may not be legally allowed due to the PHI being processed.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.1: The university should utilize a tokenization approach to prevent an inadvertent release of the PHI data. In a tokenization approach, all or part of data in a field is replaced with a randomly generated token. That token is then stored with the original value on a token server or token vault, separate from the production database. This is an example of a deidentification control and should be used since the personally identifiable medical data is not needed to be retained after ingesting it for the research project; only the medical data itself is needed. While using DevSecOps can improve the overall security posture of the applications being developed in this project, it does not explicitly define a solution to prevent this specific issue making it a less ideal answer choice for the exam. Formal verification methods can be used to prove that none of the AI/ML techniques that process the PHI data could inadvertently leak. Still, the cost and time associated with using these methods make them inappropriate for a system used to conduct research. A formal method uses a mathematical model of a system’s inputs and outputs to prove that the system works as specified in all cases. It is difficult for manual analysis and testing to capture every possible use case scenario in a sufficiently complex system. Formal methods are mostly used with critical systems such as aircraft flight control systems, self-driving car software, and nuclear reactors, not big data research projects. The option provided that recommends utilizing a SaaS model is not realistic. There is unlikely to be a SaaS provider with a product suited to the big data research being done. SaaS products tend to be commoditized software products that are hosted in the cloud. The idea of migrating to a SaaS is a distractor on this exam, which is trying to get you to think about shifting the responsibility for the PHI to the service provider and away from the university, but due to the research nature of the project, this is unlikely to be a valid option in the real world and may not be legally allowed due to the PHI being processed.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.1: The university should utilize a tokenization approach to prevent an inadvertent release of the PHI data. In a tokenization approach, all or part of data in a field is replaced with a randomly generated token. That token is then stored with the original value on a token server or token vault, separate from the production database. This is an example of a deidentification control and should be used since the personally identifiable medical data is not needed to be retained after ingesting it for the research project; only the medical data itself is needed. While using DevSecOps can improve the overall security posture of the applications being developed in this project, it does not explicitly define a solution to prevent this specific issue making it a less ideal answer choice for the exam. Formal verification methods can be used to prove that none of the AI/ML techniques that process the PHI data could inadvertently leak. Still, the cost and time associated with using these methods make them inappropriate for a system used to conduct research. A formal method uses a mathematical model of a system’s inputs and outputs to prove that the system works as specified in all cases. It is difficult for manual analysis and testing to capture every possible use case scenario in a sufficiently complex system. Formal methods are mostly used with critical systems such as aircraft flight control systems, self-driving car software, and nuclear reactors, not big data research projects. The option provided that recommends utilizing a SaaS model is not realistic. There is unlikely to be a SaaS provider with a product suited to the big data research being done. SaaS products tend to be commoditized software products that are hosted in the cloud. The idea of migrating to a SaaS is a distractor on this exam, which is trying to get you to think about shifting the responsibility for the PHI to the service provider and away from the university, but due to the research nature of the project, this is unlikely to be a valid option in the real world and may not be legally allowed due to the PHI being processed.
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
Riaan’s company runs critical web applications. During a vulnerability scan, Riaan found a serious SQL injection vulnerability in one of their web applications. The system cannot be taken offline to remediate the vulnerability. Which of the following compensating controls should Riaan recommend using until the system can be remediated?
Correct
OBJ-3.2: WAF (web application firewall) is the best option since it can serve as a compensating control and protect against web application vulnerabilities like an SQL injection until the application can be fully remediated. Vulnerability scanning could only be used to detect the issue. Therefore, it is a detective control, not a compensating control. Encryption would not be effective in stopping an SQL injection. An IPS are designed to protected network devices based on ports, protocols, and signatures. It would not be effective against an SQL injection and is not considered a compensating control for this vulnerability.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.2: WAF (web application firewall) is the best option since it can serve as a compensating control and protect against web application vulnerabilities like an SQL injection until the application can be fully remediated. Vulnerability scanning could only be used to detect the issue. Therefore, it is a detective control, not a compensating control. Encryption would not be effective in stopping an SQL injection. An IPS are designed to protected network devices based on ports, protocols, and signatures. It would not be effective against an SQL injection and is not considered a compensating control for this vulnerability.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.2: WAF (web application firewall) is the best option since it can serve as a compensating control and protect against web application vulnerabilities like an SQL injection until the application can be fully remediated. Vulnerability scanning could only be used to detect the issue. Therefore, it is a detective control, not a compensating control. Encryption would not be effective in stopping an SQL injection. An IPS are designed to protected network devices based on ports, protocols, and signatures. It would not be effective against an SQL injection and is not considered a compensating control for this vulnerability.
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
Which of the following type of threats did the Stuxnet attack rely on to cross an airgap between a business and an industrial control system network?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: Airgaps are designed to remove connections between two networks to create a physical segmentation between them. The only way to cross an airgap is to have a physical device between these systems, such as using a removable media device to transfer files between them. A directory traversal is an HTTP attack that allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside of the web server’s root directory. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks are a type of injection in which malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites. A session hijacking attack compromises the session token by stealing or predicting a valid session token to gain unauthorized access to the Web Server. A directory traversal, cross-site scripting, or session hijacking attack cannot by itself cross an airgap.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: Airgaps are designed to remove connections between two networks to create a physical segmentation between them. The only way to cross an airgap is to have a physical device between these systems, such as using a removable media device to transfer files between them. A directory traversal is an HTTP attack that allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside of the web server’s root directory. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks are a type of injection in which malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites. A session hijacking attack compromises the session token by stealing or predicting a valid session token to gain unauthorized access to the Web Server. A directory traversal, cross-site scripting, or session hijacking attack cannot by itself cross an airgap.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: Airgaps are designed to remove connections between two networks to create a physical segmentation between them. The only way to cross an airgap is to have a physical device between these systems, such as using a removable media device to transfer files between them. A directory traversal is an HTTP attack that allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside of the web server’s root directory. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks are a type of injection in which malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites. A session hijacking attack compromises the session token by stealing or predicting a valid session token to gain unauthorized access to the Web Server. A directory traversal, cross-site scripting, or session hijacking attack cannot by itself cross an airgap.
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
A cybersecurity analyst is analyzing an employee’s workstation that is acting abnormally. The analyst runs the netstat command and reviews the following output:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Proto Local Address Foreign Address State
TCP 0.0.0.0:53 0.0.0.0:0 LISTENING
TCP 0.0.0.0:135 0.0.0.0:0 LISTENING
TCP 0.0.0.0:445 0.0.0.0:0 LISTENING
TCP 0.0.0.0:5357 0.0.0.0:0 LISTENING
TCP 192.168.1.4:53 91.198.117.247:443 CLOSE_WAIT
TCP 192.168.1.4:59393 74.125.224.39:443 ESTABLISHED
TCP 192.168.1.4:59515 208.50.77.89:80 ESTABLISHED
TCP 192.168.1.4:59518 69.171.227.67:443 ESTABLISHED
TCP 192.168.1.4:59522 96.16.53.227:443 ESTABLISHED
TCP 192.168.1.4:59523 96.16.53.227:443 ESTABLISHED
TCP 192.168.1.4:53 208.71.44.30:80 ESTABLISHED
TCP 192.168.1.4:59538 74.125.224.98:80 ESTABLISHED
TCP 192.168.1.4:59539 74.125.224.98:80 ESTABLISHED
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Based on this output, which of the following entries is suspicious? (SELECT THREE)
Correct
OBJ-4.3: While we cannot be certain that any malicious activity is ongoing based solely on this netstat output, the three entries concerning port 53 are suspicious and should be further investigated. Port 53 is used for DNS servers to receive requests, and an employee’s workstation running DNS would be unusual. If the Foreign Address using port 53, this would indicate the workstation was conducting a normal DNS lookup, but based on the network traffic direction, this is not the case. The entry that is listening on port 135 is not suspicious for a Windows workstation since this is used to conduct file sharing across a local Windows-based network with NetBIOS. The two entries from a random high number port to a web server (port 80 and port 443) is normal network traffic. The web server listens on a well-known or reserved port (port 80 and port 443) and then responds to the random high number port chosen by the workstation to conduct two-way communications.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.3: While we cannot be certain that any malicious activity is ongoing based solely on this netstat output, the three entries concerning port 53 are suspicious and should be further investigated. Port 53 is used for DNS servers to receive requests, and an employee’s workstation running DNS would be unusual. If the Foreign Address using port 53, this would indicate the workstation was conducting a normal DNS lookup, but based on the network traffic direction, this is not the case. The entry that is listening on port 135 is not suspicious for a Windows workstation since this is used to conduct file sharing across a local Windows-based network with NetBIOS. The two entries from a random high number port to a web server (port 80 and port 443) is normal network traffic. The web server listens on a well-known or reserved port (port 80 and port 443) and then responds to the random high number port chosen by the workstation to conduct two-way communications.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.3: While we cannot be certain that any malicious activity is ongoing based solely on this netstat output, the three entries concerning port 53 are suspicious and should be further investigated. Port 53 is used for DNS servers to receive requests, and an employee’s workstation running DNS would be unusual. If the Foreign Address using port 53, this would indicate the workstation was conducting a normal DNS lookup, but based on the network traffic direction, this is not the case. The entry that is listening on port 135 is not suspicious for a Windows workstation since this is used to conduct file sharing across a local Windows-based network with NetBIOS. The two entries from a random high number port to a web server (port 80 and port 443) is normal network traffic. The web server listens on a well-known or reserved port (port 80 and port 443) and then responds to the random high number port chosen by the workstation to conduct two-way communications.
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
Which of the following is NOT a valid reason to conduct reverse engineering?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: If a software developer has a copy of their source code, there is no need to reverse engineer it since they can directly examine the code. Doing this is known as static code analysis, not reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing a system’s or application’s structure to reveal more about how it functions. In malware, examining the code that implements its functionality can provide you with information as to how the malware propagates and what its primary directives are. Reverse engineering is also used to conduct industrial espionage since it can allow a company to figure out how a competitor’s application works and develop its own version. An attacker might use reverse engineering of an application or executable to identify a flaw or vulnerability in its operation and then exploit that flaw as part of their attack.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: If a software developer has a copy of their source code, there is no need to reverse engineer it since they can directly examine the code. Doing this is known as static code analysis, not reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing a system’s or application’s structure to reveal more about how it functions. In malware, examining the code that implements its functionality can provide you with information as to how the malware propagates and what its primary directives are. Reverse engineering is also used to conduct industrial espionage since it can allow a company to figure out how a competitor’s application works and develop its own version. An attacker might use reverse engineering of an application or executable to identify a flaw or vulnerability in its operation and then exploit that flaw as part of their attack.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: If a software developer has a copy of their source code, there is no need to reverse engineer it since they can directly examine the code. Doing this is known as static code analysis, not reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing a system’s or application’s structure to reveal more about how it functions. In malware, examining the code that implements its functionality can provide you with information as to how the malware propagates and what its primary directives are. Reverse engineering is also used to conduct industrial espionage since it can allow a company to figure out how a competitor’s application works and develop its own version. An attacker might use reverse engineering of an application or executable to identify a flaw or vulnerability in its operation and then exploit that flaw as part of their attack.
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
Evaluate the following log entry:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Jan 11 05:52:56 lx1 kernel: iptables INPUT drop IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=00:15:5d:01:ca:55:00:15:5d:01:ca:ad:08:00 SRC=10.1.0.102 DST=10.1.0.10 LEN=52 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=128 ID=3988 DF PROTO=TCP SPT=2583 DPT=23 WINDOW=64240 RES=0x00 SYN URGP=0
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Based on this log entry, which of the following statements are true?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: Firewall log formats will vary by vendors, but this example is a commonly used format from the Linux iptable firewall tool. This log starts with the date and time of the event and provides some key pieces of information. For example, the word “drop” shows the action this log entry recorded. In this case, the firewall dropped a packet due to an ACL rule being applied. You can also see that the packet was detected on the inbound connection over eth0, so we know that packets are being scanned and blocked when they are headed inbound to the network. Next, we see the MAC address of the source device of the packet, the source (SRC) IP address, and the destination (DST) IP address. Further down, we see the source (SPT) and destination ports (DPT). In this case, the DPT is 23 and is a well-known port for telnet. Based on this single log entry, we cannot tell if packets are also being blocked when they are attempting to leave the network or if they are blocking connections to the ssh service (port 22) is also being conducting.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: Firewall log formats will vary by vendors, but this example is a commonly used format from the Linux iptable firewall tool. This log starts with the date and time of the event and provides some key pieces of information. For example, the word “drop” shows the action this log entry recorded. In this case, the firewall dropped a packet due to an ACL rule being applied. You can also see that the packet was detected on the inbound connection over eth0, so we know that packets are being scanned and blocked when they are headed inbound to the network. Next, we see the MAC address of the source device of the packet, the source (SRC) IP address, and the destination (DST) IP address. Further down, we see the source (SPT) and destination ports (DPT). In this case, the DPT is 23 and is a well-known port for telnet. Based on this single log entry, we cannot tell if packets are also being blocked when they are attempting to leave the network or if they are blocking connections to the ssh service (port 22) is also being conducting.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: Firewall log formats will vary by vendors, but this example is a commonly used format from the Linux iptable firewall tool. This log starts with the date and time of the event and provides some key pieces of information. For example, the word “drop” shows the action this log entry recorded. In this case, the firewall dropped a packet due to an ACL rule being applied. You can also see that the packet was detected on the inbound connection over eth0, so we know that packets are being scanned and blocked when they are headed inbound to the network. Next, we see the MAC address of the source device of the packet, the source (SRC) IP address, and the destination (DST) IP address. Further down, we see the source (SPT) and destination ports (DPT). In this case, the DPT is 23 and is a well-known port for telnet. Based on this single log entry, we cannot tell if packets are also being blocked when they are attempting to leave the network or if they are blocking connections to the ssh service (port 22) is also being conducting.
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
You suspect that a service called explorer.exe on a Windows server is malicious, and you need to terminate it. Which of the following tools would NOT be able to terminate it?
Correct
OBJ-4.2: The security policy auditor (secpol.msc) will allow an authorized administrator the option to change a great deal about an operating system, but it cannot explicitly stop a process or service that is already running. The sc.exe command allows an analyst to control services, including terminating them. The Windows Management Instrumentation (wmic) can terminate a service using the following: wmic service call StopService. The services.msc tool can also enable, start, or terminate a running service.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: The security policy auditor (secpol.msc) will allow an authorized administrator the option to change a great deal about an operating system, but it cannot explicitly stop a process or service that is already running. The sc.exe command allows an analyst to control services, including terminating them. The Windows Management Instrumentation (wmic) can terminate a service using the following: wmic service call StopService. The services.msc tool can also enable, start, or terminate a running service.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: The security policy auditor (secpol.msc) will allow an authorized administrator the option to change a great deal about an operating system, but it cannot explicitly stop a process or service that is already running. The sc.exe command allows an analyst to control services, including terminating them. The Windows Management Instrumentation (wmic) can terminate a service using the following: wmic service call StopService. The services.msc tool can also enable, start, or terminate a running service.
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
In which phase of the security intelligence cycle is input collected from intelligence producers and consumers to improve the implementation of intelligence requirements?
Correct
OBJ-1.2: The final phase of the security intelligence cycle is feedback and review, which utilizes intelligence producers’ and intelligence consumers’ input. This phase aims to improve the implementation of the requirements, collection, analysis, and dissemination phases as the life cycle is developed. The dissemination phase refers to publishing information produced by analysis to consumers who need to develop the insights. The analysis phase focuses on converting collected data into useful information or actionable intelligence. The collection phase is usually implemented by software suites, such as security information and event management (SIEM). This software must be configured with connectors or agents that can retrieve data from sources such as firewalls, routers, IDS sensors, and servers.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.2: The final phase of the security intelligence cycle is feedback and review, which utilizes intelligence producers’ and intelligence consumers’ input. This phase aims to improve the implementation of the requirements, collection, analysis, and dissemination phases as the life cycle is developed. The dissemination phase refers to publishing information produced by analysis to consumers who need to develop the insights. The analysis phase focuses on converting collected data into useful information or actionable intelligence. The collection phase is usually implemented by software suites, such as security information and event management (SIEM). This software must be configured with connectors or agents that can retrieve data from sources such as firewalls, routers, IDS sensors, and servers.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.2: The final phase of the security intelligence cycle is feedback and review, which utilizes intelligence producers’ and intelligence consumers’ input. This phase aims to improve the implementation of the requirements, collection, analysis, and dissemination phases as the life cycle is developed. The dissemination phase refers to publishing information produced by analysis to consumers who need to develop the insights. The analysis phase focuses on converting collected data into useful information or actionable intelligence. The collection phase is usually implemented by software suites, such as security information and event management (SIEM). This software must be configured with connectors or agents that can retrieve data from sources such as firewalls, routers, IDS sensors, and servers.
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
SkillCertPro Training’s security team recently discovered a bug in their software’s code. The development team released a software patch to remove the vulnerability caused by the bug. What type of test should a software tester perform on the application to ensure that it is still functioning properly after the patch is installed?
Correct
OBJ-2.2: Regression testing is re-running functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs after a change. After installing any patch, it is important to conduct regression testing to confirm that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features or functionality. Fuzzing is an automated software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, failing built-in code assertions, or potential memory leaks. User acceptance testing is a test conducted to determine if the specifications or contract requirements have been met. A penetration test is an authorized simulated cyberattack on a computer system, performed to evaluate the system’s security.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.2: Regression testing is re-running functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs after a change. After installing any patch, it is important to conduct regression testing to confirm that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features or functionality. Fuzzing is an automated software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, failing built-in code assertions, or potential memory leaks. User acceptance testing is a test conducted to determine if the specifications or contract requirements have been met. A penetration test is an authorized simulated cyberattack on a computer system, performed to evaluate the system’s security.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.2: Regression testing is re-running functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs after a change. After installing any patch, it is important to conduct regression testing to confirm that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features or functionality. Fuzzing is an automated software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, failing built-in code assertions, or potential memory leaks. User acceptance testing is a test conducted to determine if the specifications or contract requirements have been met. A penetration test is an authorized simulated cyberattack on a computer system, performed to evaluate the system’s security.
Question 23 of 60
23. Question
In 2014, Apple’s implementation of SSL had a severe vulnerability that, when exploited, allowed an attacker to gain a privileged network position that would allow them to capture or modify data in an SSL/TLS session. This was caused by poor programming in which a failed check of the connection would exit the function too early. Based on this description, what is this an example of?
Correct
OBJ-3.2: This is an example of an improper error handling vulnerability. A well-written application must be able to handle errors and exceptions gracefully. The main goal must be for the application not to fail and allows the attacker to execute code or perform an injection attack. One famous example of an improper error handling vulnerability is Apple’s GoTo bug, as described above. For more details on this particular vulnerability, please see CVE-2014-1266. Insecure object reference refers to when a reference to an internal implementation object, such as a file or database key, is exposed to users without any other access control. Insufficient logging and monitoring allow attackers to achieve their goals without being detected due to the lack of monitoring and timely response by defenders. The use of insecure functions occurs in the C language when legacy functions like strcpy() are used. These insecure functions can lead to buffer overflow and other exploits being successful against a program.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.2: This is an example of an improper error handling vulnerability. A well-written application must be able to handle errors and exceptions gracefully. The main goal must be for the application not to fail and allows the attacker to execute code or perform an injection attack. One famous example of an improper error handling vulnerability is Apple’s GoTo bug, as described above. For more details on this particular vulnerability, please see CVE-2014-1266. Insecure object reference refers to when a reference to an internal implementation object, such as a file or database key, is exposed to users without any other access control. Insufficient logging and monitoring allow attackers to achieve their goals without being detected due to the lack of monitoring and timely response by defenders. The use of insecure functions occurs in the C language when legacy functions like strcpy() are used. These insecure functions can lead to buffer overflow and other exploits being successful against a program.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.2: This is an example of an improper error handling vulnerability. A well-written application must be able to handle errors and exceptions gracefully. The main goal must be for the application not to fail and allows the attacker to execute code or perform an injection attack. One famous example of an improper error handling vulnerability is Apple’s GoTo bug, as described above. For more details on this particular vulnerability, please see CVE-2014-1266. Insecure object reference refers to when a reference to an internal implementation object, such as a file or database key, is exposed to users without any other access control. Insufficient logging and monitoring allow attackers to achieve their goals without being detected due to the lack of monitoring and timely response by defenders. The use of insecure functions occurs in the C language when legacy functions like strcpy() are used. These insecure functions can lead to buffer overflow and other exploits being successful against a program.
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
You are analyzing DNS logs looking for indicators of compromise associated with the use of a fast-flux network. You are already aware that the names involved in this particular fast-flux network are longer than 50 characters and always end in a .org top-level domain. Which of the following REGEGX expressions would you use to filter DNS traffic that matches this?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: The correct REGEX is \b[A-Za-z0-9\.\-]{50,251}+\.org to use as a filter in this case. The first phrase before the + sign indicates to match between 50 and 251 instances of any of the preceding letters (A-Z, a-z, 0-9, period, and the minus symbol). Since DNS hostnames cannot be longer than 255 characters per RFC1123, a range of 50-251 will account for the four characters in “.org” being added to the end of the random sequences. The + sign indicates that after the preceding regex fragment, the following regex pattern should be present. Following the + sign, the pattern “\.org” indicates that selected strings must end in .org. All other options either incorrectly use parenthesis, the OR operator (|), or forgot to use the escape character (\) in front of the period symbol.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: The correct REGEX is \b[A-Za-z0-9\.\-]{50,251}+\.org to use as a filter in this case. The first phrase before the + sign indicates to match between 50 and 251 instances of any of the preceding letters (A-Z, a-z, 0-9, period, and the minus symbol). Since DNS hostnames cannot be longer than 255 characters per RFC1123, a range of 50-251 will account for the four characters in “.org” being added to the end of the random sequences. The + sign indicates that after the preceding regex fragment, the following regex pattern should be present. Following the + sign, the pattern “\.org” indicates that selected strings must end in .org. All other options either incorrectly use parenthesis, the OR operator (|), or forgot to use the escape character (\) in front of the period symbol.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: The correct REGEX is \b[A-Za-z0-9\.\-]{50,251}+\.org to use as a filter in this case. The first phrase before the + sign indicates to match between 50 and 251 instances of any of the preceding letters (A-Z, a-z, 0-9, period, and the minus symbol). Since DNS hostnames cannot be longer than 255 characters per RFC1123, a range of 50-251 will account for the four characters in “.org” being added to the end of the random sequences. The + sign indicates that after the preceding regex fragment, the following regex pattern should be present. Following the + sign, the pattern “\.org” indicates that selected strings must end in .org. All other options either incorrectly use parenthesis, the OR operator (|), or forgot to use the escape character (\) in front of the period symbol.
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
Which of the following elements is LEAST likely to be included in an organization’s data retention policy?
Correct
OBJ-5.1: Data retention policies highlight what types of information an organization will maintain and the length of time they will maintain it. Data classification would not be covered in the retention policy but would be a key part of your organization’s data classification policy.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.1: Data retention policies highlight what types of information an organization will maintain and the length of time they will maintain it. Data classification would not be covered in the retention policy but would be a key part of your organization’s data classification policy.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.1: Data retention policies highlight what types of information an organization will maintain and the length of time they will maintain it. Data classification would not be covered in the retention policy but would be a key part of your organization’s data classification policy.
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
An analyst suspects that a trojan has victimized a Linux system. Which command should be run to determine where the current bash shell is being executed from on the system?
Correct
OBJ-4.3: By executing the “which bash” command, the system will report the file structure path to where the bash command is being run. If the directory where bash is running is different from the default directory for this Linux distribution, this would indicate a compromised machine. The ls command will list the current directory and show any files or folders named bash. The printenv command would print the value of the specified environment variable specified, bash in this example. The dir command is used to list the contents of a directory, much like ls does.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.3: By executing the “which bash” command, the system will report the file structure path to where the bash command is being run. If the directory where bash is running is different from the default directory for this Linux distribution, this would indicate a compromised machine. The ls command will list the current directory and show any files or folders named bash. The printenv command would print the value of the specified environment variable specified, bash in this example. The dir command is used to list the contents of a directory, much like ls does.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.3: By executing the “which bash” command, the system will report the file structure path to where the bash command is being run. If the directory where bash is running is different from the default directory for this Linux distribution, this would indicate a compromised machine. The ls command will list the current directory and show any files or folders named bash. The printenv command would print the value of the specified environment variable specified, bash in this example. The dir command is used to list the contents of a directory, much like ls does.
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
Which of the following is usually not considered when evaluating the attack surface of an organization?
Correct
OBJ-3.3: The software development lifecycle model used by a company is purely an internal function relevant only to the development of custom software within the organization. Regardless of whether a waterfall or agile methodology is chosen, it does not directly affect the organization’s attack surface. The attack surface represents the set of things that could be attacked by an adversary. External and internal users, websites, cloud entities, and software applications used by an organization are all possible entry points that an adversary could attempt an attack upon.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.3: The software development lifecycle model used by a company is purely an internal function relevant only to the development of custom software within the organization. Regardless of whether a waterfall or agile methodology is chosen, it does not directly affect the organization’s attack surface. The attack surface represents the set of things that could be attacked by an adversary. External and internal users, websites, cloud entities, and software applications used by an organization are all possible entry points that an adversary could attempt an attack upon.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.3: The software development lifecycle model used by a company is purely an internal function relevant only to the development of custom software within the organization. Regardless of whether a waterfall or agile methodology is chosen, it does not directly affect the organization’s attack surface. The attack surface represents the set of things that could be attacked by an adversary. External and internal users, websites, cloud entities, and software applications used by an organization are all possible entry points that an adversary could attempt an attack upon.
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
Which of the following will an adversary so during the weaponization phase of the Lockheed Martin kill chain? (SELECT THREE)
Correct
OBJ-1.2: During the weaponization phase, the adversary is exploiting the knowledge gained during the reconnaissance phase. During this phase, the adversary is still not initiating any contact with the target, though. Therefore, obtaining a ‘weaponizer’ (a tool to couple malware and exploit into a deliverable payload), crafting the decoy document, determining C2 infrastructure, and the weaponization of the payload all occur during the weaponization phase. Social media interactions may present an opportunity to deliver a payload; therefore, it occurs in the delivery phase. Compromising a server is also beyond the scope of weaponization, as it occurs in the exploitation phase. Harvesting emails is considered a reconnaissance phase action.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.2: During the weaponization phase, the adversary is exploiting the knowledge gained during the reconnaissance phase. During this phase, the adversary is still not initiating any contact with the target, though. Therefore, obtaining a ‘weaponizer’ (a tool to couple malware and exploit into a deliverable payload), crafting the decoy document, determining C2 infrastructure, and the weaponization of the payload all occur during the weaponization phase. Social media interactions may present an opportunity to deliver a payload; therefore, it occurs in the delivery phase. Compromising a server is also beyond the scope of weaponization, as it occurs in the exploitation phase. Harvesting emails is considered a reconnaissance phase action.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.2: During the weaponization phase, the adversary is exploiting the knowledge gained during the reconnaissance phase. During this phase, the adversary is still not initiating any contact with the target, though. Therefore, obtaining a ‘weaponizer’ (a tool to couple malware and exploit into a deliverable payload), crafting the decoy document, determining C2 infrastructure, and the weaponization of the payload all occur during the weaponization phase. Social media interactions may present an opportunity to deliver a payload; therefore, it occurs in the delivery phase. Compromising a server is also beyond the scope of weaponization, as it occurs in the exploitation phase. Harvesting emails is considered a reconnaissance phase action.
Question 29 of 60
29. Question
You have run a vulnerability scan and received the following output:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
CVE-2011-3389
QID 42366 – SSLv3.0/TLSv1.0 Protocol weak CBC mode Server side vulnerability
Check with: openssl s_client -connect login.skillcertprotraining.com:443 – tls -cipher “AES:CAMELLISA:SEED:3DES:DES”
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Which of the following categories should this be classified as?
Correct
OBJ-1.4: This vulnerability should be categories as a web application cryptographic vulnerability. This is shown by the weak SSLv3.0/TLSv1.0 protocol being used in cipher block chaining (CBC) mode. Specifically, the use of the 3DES and DES algorithms during negotiation is a significant vulnerability. A stronger protocol should be used, such as forcing the use of AES.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: This vulnerability should be categories as a web application cryptographic vulnerability. This is shown by the weak SSLv3.0/TLSv1.0 protocol being used in cipher block chaining (CBC) mode. Specifically, the use of the 3DES and DES algorithms during negotiation is a significant vulnerability. A stronger protocol should be used, such as forcing the use of AES.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: This vulnerability should be categories as a web application cryptographic vulnerability. This is shown by the weak SSLv3.0/TLSv1.0 protocol being used in cipher block chaining (CBC) mode. Specifically, the use of the 3DES and DES algorithms during negotiation is a significant vulnerability. A stronger protocol should be used, such as forcing the use of AES.
Question 30 of 60
30. Question
Annah is deploying a new application that she received from a vendor, but she is unsure if the hardware is adequate to support many users during peak usage periods. What type of testing could Annah perform to determine if the application will support the required number of users?
Correct
OBJ-2.2: Load testing or stress testing puts an application, network, or system under full load conditions to document any performance lapses. User Acceptance Testing is the process of verifying that a created solution/software works for a user. Regression testing is defined as software testing to confirm that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features. Fuzz testing, or fuzzing, is a quality assurance technique used to discover coding errors and security loopholes in software, operating systems, or networks. It involves inputting massive amounts of random data to the test subject to make it crash. User acceptance testing, regression testing, and fuzz testing are not designed to test a system under heavy load conditions. Therefore, they will not be suitable for Annah’s needs in this scenario.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.2: Load testing or stress testing puts an application, network, or system under full load conditions to document any performance lapses. User Acceptance Testing is the process of verifying that a created solution/software works for a user. Regression testing is defined as software testing to confirm that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features. Fuzz testing, or fuzzing, is a quality assurance technique used to discover coding errors and security loopholes in software, operating systems, or networks. It involves inputting massive amounts of random data to the test subject to make it crash. User acceptance testing, regression testing, and fuzz testing are not designed to test a system under heavy load conditions. Therefore, they will not be suitable for Annah’s needs in this scenario.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.2: Load testing or stress testing puts an application, network, or system under full load conditions to document any performance lapses. User Acceptance Testing is the process of verifying that a created solution/software works for a user. Regression testing is defined as software testing to confirm that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features. Fuzz testing, or fuzzing, is a quality assurance technique used to discover coding errors and security loopholes in software, operating systems, or networks. It involves inputting massive amounts of random data to the test subject to make it crash. User acceptance testing, regression testing, and fuzz testing are not designed to test a system under heavy load conditions. Therefore, they will not be suitable for Annah’s needs in this scenario.
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
Which of the following roles should be assigned to the incident response team? (SELECT FOUR)
Correct
OBJ-4.2: Human Resources has a role to play in that the discoveries made during incident handling may affect employees and employment law. Privacy concerns regarding how to intercept and monitor data may also necessitate HR and Legal involvement. For various reasons, the company may decide to go public with the knowledge of the breach. Therefore, public relations personnel are needed. Management has a crucial role to play in being able to allocate resources to remediate the incident. System administrators and security analysts should also be on the team since they know what constitutes a normal baseline for the systems. In general, positions such as facility maintenance and accounting are not required as part of the core incident response team. In special circumstances, though, they may be asked to augment the team. For example, if a breach of a SCADA/ICS system occurs, the facility maintenance employee who operates and services the machine might be a useful addition. Similarly, if a payroll or accounting system was breached, having an accounting department representative could help the response and remediation efforts.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: Human Resources has a role to play in that the discoveries made during incident handling may affect employees and employment law. Privacy concerns regarding how to intercept and monitor data may also necessitate HR and Legal involvement. For various reasons, the company may decide to go public with the knowledge of the breach. Therefore, public relations personnel are needed. Management has a crucial role to play in being able to allocate resources to remediate the incident. System administrators and security analysts should also be on the team since they know what constitutes a normal baseline for the systems. In general, positions such as facility maintenance and accounting are not required as part of the core incident response team. In special circumstances, though, they may be asked to augment the team. For example, if a breach of a SCADA/ICS system occurs, the facility maintenance employee who operates and services the machine might be a useful addition. Similarly, if a payroll or accounting system was breached, having an accounting department representative could help the response and remediation efforts.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: Human Resources has a role to play in that the discoveries made during incident handling may affect employees and employment law. Privacy concerns regarding how to intercept and monitor data may also necessitate HR and Legal involvement. For various reasons, the company may decide to go public with the knowledge of the breach. Therefore, public relations personnel are needed. Management has a crucial role to play in being able to allocate resources to remediate the incident. System administrators and security analysts should also be on the team since they know what constitutes a normal baseline for the systems. In general, positions such as facility maintenance and accounting are not required as part of the core incident response team. In special circumstances, though, they may be asked to augment the team. For example, if a breach of a SCADA/ICS system occurs, the facility maintenance employee who operates and services the machine might be a useful addition. Similarly, if a payroll or accounting system was breached, having an accounting department representative could help the response and remediation efforts.
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
Consider the following data:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
{
“id”: “bundle–cf20f99b-3ed2-4a9f-b4f1-d660a7fc8241”,
“objects”: [
{
“aliases”: [
“Comment Crew”,
“Comment Group”,
“Shady Rat”
],
“created”: “2015-05-15T09:00:00.000Z”,
“description”: “APT1 is a single organization of operators that has conducted a cyber espionage campaign against a broad range of victims since at least 2006.”,
“first_seen”: “2006-06-01T00:00:00.000Z”,
“id”: “intrusion-set–da1065ce-972c-4605-8755-9cd1074e3b5a”,
“modified”: “2015-05-15T09:00:00.000Z”,
“name”: “APT1”,
“object_marking_refs”: [
“marking-definition–3444e29e-2aa6-46f7-a01c-1c174820fa67”
],
“primary_motivation”: “organizational-gain”,
“resource_level”: “government”,
“spec_version”: “2.1”,
“type”: “intrusion-set”
},
{
“aliases”: [
“Greenfield”,
“JackWang”,
“Wang Dong”
],
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Which of the following best describes the data presented above?
Correct
OBJ-1.2: The excerpt is a JSON object used by the STIX protocol to convey threat information. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression) is a standardized XML programming language for conveying data about cybersecurity threats in a common language that can be easily understood by humans and security technologies. Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information (TAXII™) is an application protocol for exchanging CTI over HTTPS. TAXII defines a RESTful API (a set of services and message exchanges) and a set of requirements for TAXII Clients and Servers. MITRE ATT&CK® is a globally-accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. The ATT&CK knowledge base is used as a foundation for developing specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, government, and the cybersecurity product and service community.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.2: The excerpt is a JSON object used by the STIX protocol to convey threat information. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression) is a standardized XML programming language for conveying data about cybersecurity threats in a common language that can be easily understood by humans and security technologies. Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information (TAXII™) is an application protocol for exchanging CTI over HTTPS. TAXII defines a RESTful API (a set of services and message exchanges) and a set of requirements for TAXII Clients and Servers. MITRE ATT&CK® is a globally-accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. The ATT&CK knowledge base is used as a foundation for developing specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, government, and the cybersecurity product and service community.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.2: The excerpt is a JSON object used by the STIX protocol to convey threat information. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression) is a standardized XML programming language for conveying data about cybersecurity threats in a common language that can be easily understood by humans and security technologies. Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information (TAXII™) is an application protocol for exchanging CTI over HTTPS. TAXII defines a RESTful API (a set of services and message exchanges) and a set of requirements for TAXII Clients and Servers. MITRE ATT&CK® is a globally-accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. The ATT&CK knowledge base is used as a foundation for developing specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, government, and the cybersecurity product and service community.
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
Which term is used in software development to refer to the method in which app and platform updates are committed to a production environment rapidly?
Correct
OBJ-3.4: Continuous deployment is a software development method in which app and platform updates are committed to production rapidly. Continuous delivery is a software development method in which app and platform requirements are frequently tested and validated for immediate availability. Continuous integration is a software development method in which code updates are tested and committed to development or build server/code repositories rapidly. Continuous monitoring is the technique of constantly evaluating an environment for changes so that new risks may be more quickly detected and business operations improved upon. While continuous deployment and continuous delivery sound very similar, there is one key difference. In continuous deployment, a human is still required to approve the release into the production environment. In continuous delivery, the test and release process into the production environment is automated, making the changes available for immediate release once the code is committed.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.4: Continuous deployment is a software development method in which app and platform updates are committed to production rapidly. Continuous delivery is a software development method in which app and platform requirements are frequently tested and validated for immediate availability. Continuous integration is a software development method in which code updates are tested and committed to development or build server/code repositories rapidly. Continuous monitoring is the technique of constantly evaluating an environment for changes so that new risks may be more quickly detected and business operations improved upon. While continuous deployment and continuous delivery sound very similar, there is one key difference. In continuous deployment, a human is still required to approve the release into the production environment. In continuous delivery, the test and release process into the production environment is automated, making the changes available for immediate release once the code is committed.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.4: Continuous deployment is a software development method in which app and platform updates are committed to production rapidly. Continuous delivery is a software development method in which app and platform requirements are frequently tested and validated for immediate availability. Continuous integration is a software development method in which code updates are tested and committed to development or build server/code repositories rapidly. Continuous monitoring is the technique of constantly evaluating an environment for changes so that new risks may be more quickly detected and business operations improved upon. While continuous deployment and continuous delivery sound very similar, there is one key difference. In continuous deployment, a human is still required to approve the release into the production environment. In continuous delivery, the test and release process into the production environment is automated, making the changes available for immediate release once the code is committed.
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
Aymen is creating a procedure for the remediation of vulnerabilities discovered within his organization. He wants to ensure that any vendor patches are tested before deploying them into the production environment. What type of environment should his organization establish?
Correct
OBJ-3.2: Deploying changes in a staging or sandbox environment provides the organization with a safe, isolated place for testing changes without interfering with production systems. Staging environments can mimic the actual production environment, leading to a realistic test environment that minimizes the risk of failure during a push to the production environment. Honeypots/Honeynets are not considered a testing environment. Instead, they are designed to attract attackers. The organization should not use the development environment to test the patches since a development environment does not mimic the real production environment.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.2: Deploying changes in a staging or sandbox environment provides the organization with a safe, isolated place for testing changes without interfering with production systems. Staging environments can mimic the actual production environment, leading to a realistic test environment that minimizes the risk of failure during a push to the production environment. Honeypots/Honeynets are not considered a testing environment. Instead, they are designed to attract attackers. The organization should not use the development environment to test the patches since a development environment does not mimic the real production environment.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.2: Deploying changes in a staging or sandbox environment provides the organization with a safe, isolated place for testing changes without interfering with production systems. Staging environments can mimic the actual production environment, leading to a realistic test environment that minimizes the risk of failure during a push to the production environment. Honeypots/Honeynets are not considered a testing environment. Instead, they are designed to attract attackers. The organization should not use the development environment to test the patches since a development environment does not mimic the real production environment.
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
You have evidence to believe that an attacker was scanning your network from an IP address at 172.16.1.224. This network is part of a /26 subnet. You wish to quickly filter through several logs using a REGEX for anything that came from that subnet. What REGEX expression would provide the appropriate output when searching the logs for any traffic originating from only IP addresses within that subnet?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: The correct answer is \b172\.16\.1\.(25[0-5]|19[2-9]|2[0-4][0-9])\b. The \b delimiter indicates that we are looking for whole words for the complete string. To answer this question, you have to rely on your networking knowledge and what you learned back in Network+. First, you need to calculate what is the IP range for this subnet. Since this is a /26, it would have 64 IP addresses in the range. Since the IP provided was 172.16.1.224, the range would be 172.16.1.192 to 172.16.1.255. The correct answer allows all values of 200-249 through the use of the phrase 2[0-4][0-9]. The values of 250-255 are specified by 25[0-5]. The values of 192-199 are specified through the use of 19[2-9]. All other REGEX expressions either allow too much or too little of the available IP space to be effective and precise filters for the subnet given. If you had this on the exam, I would calculate the IP address range first (as we did in this explanation). Then, I would see which parts are static in the IP address (172.16.1. in this case). Three of our answer choices provide this, so we now know the large REGEX is the wrong answer. Next, we need to figure out how only to show the values of 192-255. As you look at the three options, you need to look for the differences only between the options and see which would allow for the addresses needed. All three options have the same two first terms in the last octet, which covers 200-255, so you really need to determine how to represent the values of 192-199 best.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: The correct answer is \b172\.16\.1\.(25[0-5]|19[2-9]|2[0-4][0-9])\b. The \b delimiter indicates that we are looking for whole words for the complete string. To answer this question, you have to rely on your networking knowledge and what you learned back in Network+. First, you need to calculate what is the IP range for this subnet. Since this is a /26, it would have 64 IP addresses in the range. Since the IP provided was 172.16.1.224, the range would be 172.16.1.192 to 172.16.1.255. The correct answer allows all values of 200-249 through the use of the phrase 2[0-4][0-9]. The values of 250-255 are specified by 25[0-5]. The values of 192-199 are specified through the use of 19[2-9]. All other REGEX expressions either allow too much or too little of the available IP space to be effective and precise filters for the subnet given. If you had this on the exam, I would calculate the IP address range first (as we did in this explanation). Then, I would see which parts are static in the IP address (172.16.1. in this case). Three of our answer choices provide this, so we now know the large REGEX is the wrong answer. Next, we need to figure out how only to show the values of 192-255. As you look at the three options, you need to look for the differences only between the options and see which would allow for the addresses needed. All three options have the same two first terms in the last octet, which covers 200-255, so you really need to determine how to represent the values of 192-199 best.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: The correct answer is \b172\.16\.1\.(25[0-5]|19[2-9]|2[0-4][0-9])\b. The \b delimiter indicates that we are looking for whole words for the complete string. To answer this question, you have to rely on your networking knowledge and what you learned back in Network+. First, you need to calculate what is the IP range for this subnet. Since this is a /26, it would have 64 IP addresses in the range. Since the IP provided was 172.16.1.224, the range would be 172.16.1.192 to 172.16.1.255. The correct answer allows all values of 200-249 through the use of the phrase 2[0-4][0-9]. The values of 250-255 are specified by 25[0-5]. The values of 192-199 are specified through the use of 19[2-9]. All other REGEX expressions either allow too much or too little of the available IP space to be effective and precise filters for the subnet given. If you had this on the exam, I would calculate the IP address range first (as we did in this explanation). Then, I would see which parts are static in the IP address (172.16.1. in this case). Three of our answer choices provide this, so we now know the large REGEX is the wrong answer. Next, we need to figure out how only to show the values of 192-255. As you look at the three options, you need to look for the differences only between the options and see which would allow for the addresses needed. All three options have the same two first terms in the last octet, which covers 200-255, so you really need to determine how to represent the values of 192-199 best.
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
You are attempting to prioritize your vulnerability scans based on the data’s criticality. This will be determined by the asset value of the data contained in each system. Which of the following would be the most appropriate metric to use in this prioritization?
Correct
OBJ-4.2: The data’s asset value is a metric or classification that an organization places on data stored, processed, and transmitted by an asset. Different data types, such as regulated data, intellectual property, and personally identifiable information, can determine its value. The cost of acquisition, cost of hardware replacement, and depreciated costs refer to the financial value of the hardware or system itself. This can be significantly different from the value of the information and data that the system stores and processes.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: The data’s asset value is a metric or classification that an organization places on data stored, processed, and transmitted by an asset. Different data types, such as regulated data, intellectual property, and personally identifiable information, can determine its value. The cost of acquisition, cost of hardware replacement, and depreciated costs refer to the financial value of the hardware or system itself. This can be significantly different from the value of the information and data that the system stores and processes.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: The data’s asset value is a metric or classification that an organization places on data stored, processed, and transmitted by an asset. Different data types, such as regulated data, intellectual property, and personally identifiable information, can determine its value. The cost of acquisition, cost of hardware replacement, and depreciated costs refer to the financial value of the hardware or system itself. This can be significantly different from the value of the information and data that the system stores and processes.
OBJ-1.4: This result is due to the company using a distributed server model that hosts content on Edge servers worldwide as part of a CDN. A content delivery network (CDN) is a geographically distributed network of proxy servers and their data centers that provide high availability and performance by distributing the service spatially relative to end-users. The requested content may be served from the Edge server’s cache or pull the content from the main skillcertprotraining.com servers. If you are scanning a web server or application hosted with a CDN, you need to be aware that you might be scanning an edge copy of the site and not receive accurate results. While an edge server usually maintains static content, it is still useful to determine if any vulnerabilities exist in that portion of the site content. Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks range from small and sophisticated to large and bandwidth-busting. While Akamai does provide excellent DDoS protection capabilities, nothing in this question indicates that the server is attempting to stop your scans or is assuming you are conducting a DDoS attack against it.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: This result is due to the company using a distributed server model that hosts content on Edge servers worldwide as part of a CDN. A content delivery network (CDN) is a geographically distributed network of proxy servers and their data centers that provide high availability and performance by distributing the service spatially relative to end-users. The requested content may be served from the Edge server’s cache or pull the content from the main skillcertprotraining.com servers. If you are scanning a web server or application hosted with a CDN, you need to be aware that you might be scanning an edge copy of the site and not receive accurate results. While an edge server usually maintains static content, it is still useful to determine if any vulnerabilities exist in that portion of the site content. Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks range from small and sophisticated to large and bandwidth-busting. While Akamai does provide excellent DDoS protection capabilities, nothing in this question indicates that the server is attempting to stop your scans or is assuming you are conducting a DDoS attack against it.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: This result is due to the company using a distributed server model that hosts content on Edge servers worldwide as part of a CDN. A content delivery network (CDN) is a geographically distributed network of proxy servers and their data centers that provide high availability and performance by distributing the service spatially relative to end-users. The requested content may be served from the Edge server’s cache or pull the content from the main skillcertprotraining.com servers. If you are scanning a web server or application hosted with a CDN, you need to be aware that you might be scanning an edge copy of the site and not receive accurate results. While an edge server usually maintains static content, it is still useful to determine if any vulnerabilities exist in that portion of the site content. Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks range from small and sophisticated to large and bandwidth-busting. While Akamai does provide excellent DDoS protection capabilities, nothing in this question indicates that the server is attempting to stop your scans or is assuming you are conducting a DDoS attack against it.
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
What phase of the software development lifecycle is sometimes known as the acceptance, installation, and deployment phase?
Correct
OBJ-2.2: The training and transition phase ensures that end users are trained on the software and entered general use. Because of these activities, this phase is sometimes called the acceptance, installation, and deployment phase. Disposition is focused on the retirement of an application or system. Operations and maintenance are focused on the portion of the lifecycle where the application or system goes into use to provide value to the end-users. Development is the portion of the lifecycle focused on designing and coding the application or system.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.2: The training and transition phase ensures that end users are trained on the software and entered general use. Because of these activities, this phase is sometimes called the acceptance, installation, and deployment phase. Disposition is focused on the retirement of an application or system. Operations and maintenance are focused on the portion of the lifecycle where the application or system goes into use to provide value to the end-users. Development is the portion of the lifecycle focused on designing and coding the application or system.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.2: The training and transition phase ensures that end users are trained on the software and entered general use. Because of these activities, this phase is sometimes called the acceptance, installation, and deployment phase. Disposition is focused on the retirement of an application or system. Operations and maintenance are focused on the portion of the lifecycle where the application or system goes into use to provide value to the end-users. Development is the portion of the lifecycle focused on designing and coding the application or system.
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
Where should a forensic analyst search to find a list of the wireless networks that a laptop has previously connected to with a company-owned laptop?
Correct
OBJ-4.3: The Windows registry keeps a list of the wireless networks that a system has previously connected to. The registry keys can be found in the directory of HKLM\Software\Microsoft\WindowsNT\CurrentVersion\NetworkList\Profiles. This is stored in Local Machine because it logs a copy of every access point connected to all users of the machine, not just the currently logged in user.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.3: The Windows registry keeps a list of the wireless networks that a system has previously connected to. The registry keys can be found in the directory of HKLM\Software\Microsoft\WindowsNT\CurrentVersion\NetworkList\Profiles. This is stored in Local Machine because it logs a copy of every access point connected to all users of the machine, not just the currently logged in user.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.3: The Windows registry keeps a list of the wireless networks that a system has previously connected to. The registry keys can be found in the directory of HKLM\Software\Microsoft\WindowsNT\CurrentVersion\NetworkList\Profiles. This is stored in Local Machine because it logs a copy of every access point connected to all users of the machine, not just the currently logged in user.
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
Which software development model emphasizes individuals and interactions over processes and tools, customer collaboration over contract negotiation, and working software over comprehensive documentation?
Correct
OBJ-2.2: The principles of the Agile Manifesto characterize agile software development. The Agile Manifesto emphasizes individuals and interactions over the processes and tools that Spiral and Waterfall rely on. It also focuses on working software, customer collaboration, and responding to change as key elements of the Agile process. The waterfall model is a breakdown of project activities into linear sequential phases. Each phase depends on the deliverables of the previous one and corresponds to a specialization of tasks. Rapid Application Development (RAD) is a form of agile software development methodology that prioritizes rapid prototype releases and iterations. Unlike the Waterfall method, RAD emphasizes software and user feedback over strict planning and requirements recording. Spiral development is a risk-driven software development model that guides a team to adopt elements of one or more process models, such as incremental, waterfall, or evolutionary prototyping.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.2: The principles of the Agile Manifesto characterize agile software development. The Agile Manifesto emphasizes individuals and interactions over the processes and tools that Spiral and Waterfall rely on. It also focuses on working software, customer collaboration, and responding to change as key elements of the Agile process. The waterfall model is a breakdown of project activities into linear sequential phases. Each phase depends on the deliverables of the previous one and corresponds to a specialization of tasks. Rapid Application Development (RAD) is a form of agile software development methodology that prioritizes rapid prototype releases and iterations. Unlike the Waterfall method, RAD emphasizes software and user feedback over strict planning and requirements recording. Spiral development is a risk-driven software development model that guides a team to adopt elements of one or more process models, such as incremental, waterfall, or evolutionary prototyping.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.2: The principles of the Agile Manifesto characterize agile software development. The Agile Manifesto emphasizes individuals and interactions over the processes and tools that Spiral and Waterfall rely on. It also focuses on working software, customer collaboration, and responding to change as key elements of the Agile process. The waterfall model is a breakdown of project activities into linear sequential phases. Each phase depends on the deliverables of the previous one and corresponds to a specialization of tasks. Rapid Application Development (RAD) is a form of agile software development methodology that prioritizes rapid prototype releases and iterations. Unlike the Waterfall method, RAD emphasizes software and user feedback over strict planning and requirements recording. Spiral development is a risk-driven software development model that guides a team to adopt elements of one or more process models, such as incremental, waterfall, or evolutionary prototyping.
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
You have just run the following commands on your Linux workstation:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
SkillCertProTraining:~ root# ls
Names.txt
SkillCertProTraining:~ root# more Names.txt
SKILLCERTPRO
SKILLCERTPRo
SKILLCERTPro
SKILLCERTpro
skillcertpro
SkillCertProTraining:~ root# grep -i SKILLCERTPRO Names.txt
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Which of the following options would be included as part of the output for the grep command issued? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Correct
OBJ-3.1: The grep (global search for regular expressions and print) is one of Linux’s powerful search tools. The general syntax for the grep command is “grep [options] pattern [files]. The command searches within the specified files (in this case, the Names.txt file). When the command is issued with the -i optional flag, it treats the specified pattern as case insensitive. Therefore, all uppercase and lowercase variations of the word “SkillCertPro” will be presented from the file and displayed as the command output. By default, grep uses case sensitivity, so “grep SkillCertPro Names.txt” would only display the output as “SkillCertPro” and ignore the other variations. As a cybersecurity analyst, grep is one of your most important tools. You can use regular expressions (regex) to quickly find indicators of compromise within your log files using grep.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: The grep (global search for regular expressions and print) is one of Linux’s powerful search tools. The general syntax for the grep command is “grep [options] pattern [files]. The command searches within the specified files (in this case, the Names.txt file). When the command is issued with the -i optional flag, it treats the specified pattern as case insensitive. Therefore, all uppercase and lowercase variations of the word “SkillCertPro” will be presented from the file and displayed as the command output. By default, grep uses case sensitivity, so “grep SkillCertPro Names.txt” would only display the output as “SkillCertPro” and ignore the other variations. As a cybersecurity analyst, grep is one of your most important tools. You can use regular expressions (regex) to quickly find indicators of compromise within your log files using grep.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: The grep (global search for regular expressions and print) is one of Linux’s powerful search tools. The general syntax for the grep command is “grep [options] pattern [files]. The command searches within the specified files (in this case, the Names.txt file). When the command is issued with the -i optional flag, it treats the specified pattern as case insensitive. Therefore, all uppercase and lowercase variations of the word “SkillCertPro” will be presented from the file and displayed as the command output. By default, grep uses case sensitivity, so “grep SkillCertPro Names.txt” would only display the output as “SkillCertPro” and ignore the other variations. As a cybersecurity analyst, grep is one of your most important tools. You can use regular expressions (regex) to quickly find indicators of compromise within your log files using grep.
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
Which of the following commands would NOT provide domain name information and details about a host?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: Service control (sc) is a Windows command that allows you to create, start, stop, query, or delete a Windows service. The dig command will give you information on when a query was performed, the details that were sent, and what flags were sent. In most cases, host and nslookup will also provide similar information.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: Service control (sc) is a Windows command that allows you to create, start, stop, query, or delete a Windows service. The dig command will give you information on when a query was performed, the details that were sent, and what flags were sent. In most cases, host and nslookup will also provide similar information.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: Service control (sc) is a Windows command that allows you to create, start, stop, query, or delete a Windows service. The dig command will give you information on when a query was performed, the details that were sent, and what flags were sent. In most cases, host and nslookup will also provide similar information.
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
Sarah has reason to believe that systems on her network have been compromised by an APT. She has noticed many file transfers outbound to a remote site via TLS-protected HTTPS sessions from unknown systems. Which of the following techniques would most likely detect the APT?
Correct
OBJ-4.4: An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a stealthy computer network threat actor, typically a nation-state or state-sponsored group, which gains unauthorized access to a computer network and remains undetected for an extended period. APTs usually send encrypted traffic so that they are harder to detect through network traffic analysis or network forensics. This means that you need to focus on the endpoints to detect an APT. Unfortunately, APTs are very sophisticated, so endpoint behavioral analysis is unlikely to detect them easily, so Sarah will need to conduct endpoint forensics as her most likely method to detect an APT and their associated infections on her systems.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.4: An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a stealthy computer network threat actor, typically a nation-state or state-sponsored group, which gains unauthorized access to a computer network and remains undetected for an extended period. APTs usually send encrypted traffic so that they are harder to detect through network traffic analysis or network forensics. This means that you need to focus on the endpoints to detect an APT. Unfortunately, APTs are very sophisticated, so endpoint behavioral analysis is unlikely to detect them easily, so Sarah will need to conduct endpoint forensics as her most likely method to detect an APT and their associated infections on her systems.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.4: An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a stealthy computer network threat actor, typically a nation-state or state-sponsored group, which gains unauthorized access to a computer network and remains undetected for an extended period. APTs usually send encrypted traffic so that they are harder to detect through network traffic analysis or network forensics. This means that you need to focus on the endpoints to detect an APT. Unfortunately, APTs are very sophisticated, so endpoint behavioral analysis is unlikely to detect them easily, so Sarah will need to conduct endpoint forensics as her most likely method to detect an APT and their associated infections on her systems.
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
Which of the following authentication protocols was developed by Cisco to provide authentication, authorization, and accounting services?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: TACACS+ is an extension to TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) and was developed as a proprietary protocol by Cisco. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that operates on port 1812 and provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting management for users who connect and use a network service, but Cisco did not develop it. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol designed to provide strong mutual authentication for client/server applications using secret-key cryptography developed by MIT. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is used to authenticate a user or network host to an authenticating entity. CHAP is an authentication protocol but does not provide authorization or accounting services.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: TACACS+ is an extension to TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) and was developed as a proprietary protocol by Cisco. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that operates on port 1812 and provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting management for users who connect and use a network service, but Cisco did not develop it. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol designed to provide strong mutual authentication for client/server applications using secret-key cryptography developed by MIT. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is used to authenticate a user or network host to an authenticating entity. CHAP is an authentication protocol but does not provide authorization or accounting services.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: TACACS+ is an extension to TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System) and was developed as a proprietary protocol by Cisco. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that operates on port 1812 and provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting management for users who connect and use a network service, but Cisco did not develop it. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol designed to provide strong mutual authentication for client/server applications using secret-key cryptography developed by MIT. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is used to authenticate a user or network host to an authenticating entity. CHAP is an authentication protocol but does not provide authorization or accounting services.
Question 45 of 60
45. Question
Which of the following tools is considered a web application scanner?
Correct
OBJ-1.4: OWASP Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP) is the world’s most widely used web application scanner. It is free, open-source, and provided by the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP). Nessus, Qualys, and OpenVAS are all classified as infrastructure vulnerability scanners.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: OWASP Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP) is the world’s most widely used web application scanner. It is free, open-source, and provided by the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP). Nessus, Qualys, and OpenVAS are all classified as infrastructure vulnerability scanners.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: OWASP Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP) is the world’s most widely used web application scanner. It is free, open-source, and provided by the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP). Nessus, Qualys, and OpenVAS are all classified as infrastructure vulnerability scanners.
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
Which of the following BEST describes when a third-party takes components produced by a legitimate manufacturer and assembles an unauthorized replica sold in the general marketplace?
Correct
OBJ-2.3: While the unauthorized third-party may assemble a component that was legitimately made from OEM parts, the fact remains that those parts were never intended for distribution under the manufacturer’s legitimate label. Therefore, this is considered counterfeiting. As a cybersecurity analyst, you need to be concerned with your organization’s supply chain management. There have been documented cases of counterfeit hardware (like switches and routers) being sold with malware or lower mean time between failures, both of which affect your network’s security.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.3: While the unauthorized third-party may assemble a component that was legitimately made from OEM parts, the fact remains that those parts were never intended for distribution under the manufacturer’s legitimate label. Therefore, this is considered counterfeiting. As a cybersecurity analyst, you need to be concerned with your organization’s supply chain management. There have been documented cases of counterfeit hardware (like switches and routers) being sold with malware or lower mean time between failures, both of which affect your network’s security.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.3: While the unauthorized third-party may assemble a component that was legitimately made from OEM parts, the fact remains that those parts were never intended for distribution under the manufacturer’s legitimate label. Therefore, this is considered counterfeiting. As a cybersecurity analyst, you need to be concerned with your organization’s supply chain management. There have been documented cases of counterfeit hardware (like switches and routers) being sold with malware or lower mean time between failures, both of which affect your network’s security.
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
Jack is assessing the likelihood of reconnaissance activities being performed against his organization. Which of the following would best classify the likelihood of a port scan being conducted against his DMZ?
Correct
OBJ-5.2: Since Jack’s DMZ would contain systems and servers exposed to the Internet, there is a high likelihood that they are constantly being scanned by potential attackers performing reconnaissance.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.2: Since Jack’s DMZ would contain systems and servers exposed to the Internet, there is a high likelihood that they are constantly being scanned by potential attackers performing reconnaissance.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.2: Since Jack’s DMZ would contain systems and servers exposed to the Internet, there is a high likelihood that they are constantly being scanned by potential attackers performing reconnaissance.
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
You want to provide controlled remote access to the remote administration interfaces of multiple servers hosted on a private cloud. What type of segmentation security solution is the best choice for this scenario?
Correct
OBJ-2.1: Installing a jumpbox as a single point of entry for the administration of servers within the cloud is the best choice for this requirement. The jumpbox only runs the necessary administrative port and protocol (typically SSH). Administrators connect to the jumpbox then use the jumpbox to connect to the admin interface on the application server. The application server’s admin interface has a single entry in its ACL (the jumpbox) and denies any other hosts’ connection attempts. A bastion host is a special-purpose computer on a network specifically designed and configured to withstand attacks. The computer generally hosts a single application. For example, a proxy server and all other services are removed or limited to reduce the threat to the computer. An airgap system is a network or single host computer with unique security requirements that may physically be separated from any other network. Physical separation would prevent a system from accessing the remote administration interface directly and require an airgap system to reach the private cloud.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.1: Installing a jumpbox as a single point of entry for the administration of servers within the cloud is the best choice for this requirement. The jumpbox only runs the necessary administrative port and protocol (typically SSH). Administrators connect to the jumpbox then use the jumpbox to connect to the admin interface on the application server. The application server’s admin interface has a single entry in its ACL (the jumpbox) and denies any other hosts’ connection attempts. A bastion host is a special-purpose computer on a network specifically designed and configured to withstand attacks. The computer generally hosts a single application. For example, a proxy server and all other services are removed or limited to reduce the threat to the computer. An airgap system is a network or single host computer with unique security requirements that may physically be separated from any other network. Physical separation would prevent a system from accessing the remote administration interface directly and require an airgap system to reach the private cloud.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.1: Installing a jumpbox as a single point of entry for the administration of servers within the cloud is the best choice for this requirement. The jumpbox only runs the necessary administrative port and protocol (typically SSH). Administrators connect to the jumpbox then use the jumpbox to connect to the admin interface on the application server. The application server’s admin interface has a single entry in its ACL (the jumpbox) and denies any other hosts’ connection attempts. A bastion host is a special-purpose computer on a network specifically designed and configured to withstand attacks. The computer generally hosts a single application. For example, a proxy server and all other services are removed or limited to reduce the threat to the computer. An airgap system is a network or single host computer with unique security requirements that may physically be separated from any other network. Physical separation would prevent a system from accessing the remote administration interface directly and require an airgap system to reach the private cloud.
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
During a port scan, you discover a service running on a registered port. Based on this, what do you know about this service?
Correct
OBJ-1.4: Registered ports are assigned a port number between 1024 and 49151 by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority. Just because you find one of those ports in use, that does not guarantee that the service running on it will match the normally registered service. For example, RDP uses the registered port of 3389, but nothing prevents an administrator from running a different service over port 3389 instead. Also, discovering a service using a port scanner does not necessarily identify the service correctly or provide its vulnerability status. Any ports between 0 and 1023 are known as the well-known ports.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: Registered ports are assigned a port number between 1024 and 49151 by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority. Just because you find one of those ports in use, that does not guarantee that the service running on it will match the normally registered service. For example, RDP uses the registered port of 3389, but nothing prevents an administrator from running a different service over port 3389 instead. Also, discovering a service using a port scanner does not necessarily identify the service correctly or provide its vulnerability status. Any ports between 0 and 1023 are known as the well-known ports.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: Registered ports are assigned a port number between 1024 and 49151 by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority. Just because you find one of those ports in use, that does not guarantee that the service running on it will match the normally registered service. For example, RDP uses the registered port of 3389, but nothing prevents an administrator from running a different service over port 3389 instead. Also, discovering a service using a port scanner does not necessarily identify the service correctly or provide its vulnerability status. Any ports between 0 and 1023 are known as the well-known ports.
Question 50 of 60
50. Question
Which of the following vulnerabilities is the greatest threat to data confidentiality?
Correct
OBJ-1.4: Each vulnerability mentioned poses a significant risk, but the greatest threat comes from the SQL injection. An SQL injection could allow an attacker to retrieve our data from the backend database directly. Using this technique, the attacker could also alter the data and put it back, and nobody would notice everything that had been changed, thereby also affecting our data integrity. The HTTP TRACE/TRACK methods are normally used to return the full HTTP request to the requesting client for proxy-debugging purposes and allow the attacker to access sensitive information in the HTTP headers. Since this only exposes information in the headers, it minimizes the risk to our system’s data confidentiality. An SSL server with SSLv3 enabled is not ideal since this is an older encryption type, but it still provides some confidentiality. The phpinfo information disclosure vulnerability prints out detailed information on both the system and the PHP configuration. This information by itself doesn’t disclose any information about the data stored within the system, though, so it isn’t a great threat to our data’s confidentiality.
Incorrect
OBJ-1.4: Each vulnerability mentioned poses a significant risk, but the greatest threat comes from the SQL injection. An SQL injection could allow an attacker to retrieve our data from the backend database directly. Using this technique, the attacker could also alter the data and put it back, and nobody would notice everything that had been changed, thereby also affecting our data integrity. The HTTP TRACE/TRACK methods are normally used to return the full HTTP request to the requesting client for proxy-debugging purposes and allow the attacker to access sensitive information in the HTTP headers. Since this only exposes information in the headers, it minimizes the risk to our system’s data confidentiality. An SSL server with SSLv3 enabled is not ideal since this is an older encryption type, but it still provides some confidentiality. The phpinfo information disclosure vulnerability prints out detailed information on both the system and the PHP configuration. This information by itself doesn’t disclose any information about the data stored within the system, though, so it isn’t a great threat to our data’s confidentiality.
Unattempted
OBJ-1.4: Each vulnerability mentioned poses a significant risk, but the greatest threat comes from the SQL injection. An SQL injection could allow an attacker to retrieve our data from the backend database directly. Using this technique, the attacker could also alter the data and put it back, and nobody would notice everything that had been changed, thereby also affecting our data integrity. The HTTP TRACE/TRACK methods are normally used to return the full HTTP request to the requesting client for proxy-debugging purposes and allow the attacker to access sensitive information in the HTTP headers. Since this only exposes information in the headers, it minimizes the risk to our system’s data confidentiality. An SSL server with SSLv3 enabled is not ideal since this is an older encryption type, but it still provides some confidentiality. The phpinfo information disclosure vulnerability prints out detailed information on both the system and the PHP configuration. This information by itself doesn’t disclose any information about the data stored within the system, though, so it isn’t a great threat to our data’s confidentiality.
Question 51 of 60
51. Question
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing the logs for his company’s server and sees the following output:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=
Process spawned by services.exe (c:\windows\system32\inetsrv\svchost.exe)
Process spawned by services.exe (c:\windows\system32\cmd.exe)
Command line (cmd /c start C:\WINDOWS\system32\wmiprvse.exe c:\WINDOWS\system32\ 2006)
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=
Based on this potential indicator of compromise (IoC), which of the following hypotheses should you make to begin threat hunting?
Correct
OBJ-3.3: This appears to be an indication that unauthorized privileges are being used. The first binary, svchost.exe, executes from an odd location that indicates it might be malicious). The process svchost.exe doesn’t usually reside in the inetsrv folder in a Windows system since this folder contains the Windows IIS web server files. Additionally, this file then spawned a binary that appears to be masquerading as a Windows process, the WMI Provider Host called wmiprvse.exe. This appears to be the beginning of a privilege escalation attack. Based on the output above, there is no evidence that data is being exfiltrated or stolen from the network. Based on the output above, there is no evidence that any network protocol is currently used over a non-standard port. Finally, there is no evidence of beaconing or network activity in this output.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.3: This appears to be an indication that unauthorized privileges are being used. The first binary, svchost.exe, executes from an odd location that indicates it might be malicious). The process svchost.exe doesn’t usually reside in the inetsrv folder in a Windows system since this folder contains the Windows IIS web server files. Additionally, this file then spawned a binary that appears to be masquerading as a Windows process, the WMI Provider Host called wmiprvse.exe. This appears to be the beginning of a privilege escalation attack. Based on the output above, there is no evidence that data is being exfiltrated or stolen from the network. Based on the output above, there is no evidence that any network protocol is currently used over a non-standard port. Finally, there is no evidence of beaconing or network activity in this output.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.3: This appears to be an indication that unauthorized privileges are being used. The first binary, svchost.exe, executes from an odd location that indicates it might be malicious). The process svchost.exe doesn’t usually reside in the inetsrv folder in a Windows system since this folder contains the Windows IIS web server files. Additionally, this file then spawned a binary that appears to be masquerading as a Windows process, the WMI Provider Host called wmiprvse.exe. This appears to be the beginning of a privilege escalation attack. Based on the output above, there is no evidence that data is being exfiltrated or stolen from the network. Based on the output above, there is no evidence that any network protocol is currently used over a non-standard port. Finally, there is no evidence of beaconing or network activity in this output.
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
Praveen is currently investigating activity from an attacker who compromised a host on the network. The individual appears to have used credentials belonging to a janitor. After breaching the system, the attacker entered some unrecognized commands with very long text strings and then began using the sudo command to carry out actions. What type of attack has just taken place?
Correct
OBJ-4.3: The use of long query strings points to a buffer overflow attack, and the sudo command confirms the elevated privileges after the attack. This indicates a privilege escalation has occurred. While the other three options may have been used as an initial access vector, they cannot be confirmed based on the question’s details. Only a privilege escalation is currently verified within the scenario due to the use of sudo.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.3: The use of long query strings points to a buffer overflow attack, and the sudo command confirms the elevated privileges after the attack. This indicates a privilege escalation has occurred. While the other three options may have been used as an initial access vector, they cannot be confirmed based on the question’s details. Only a privilege escalation is currently verified within the scenario due to the use of sudo.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.3: The use of long query strings points to a buffer overflow attack, and the sudo command confirms the elevated privileges after the attack. This indicates a privilege escalation has occurred. While the other three options may have been used as an initial access vector, they cannot be confirmed based on the question’s details. Only a privilege escalation is currently verified within the scenario due to the use of sudo.
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
Which of the following policies should contain the requirements for removing a user’s access when an employee is terminated?
Correct
OBJ-5.3: Account management policies describe the account life cycle from creation through decommissioning. Data ownership policies describe how ownership information is created and used. Data classification policies describe the classification structure of the data in use by an organization. Retention policies describe what data will be maintained and for how long it will be retained.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.3: Account management policies describe the account life cycle from creation through decommissioning. Data ownership policies describe how ownership information is created and used. Data classification policies describe the classification structure of the data in use by an organization. Retention policies describe what data will be maintained and for how long it will be retained.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.3: Account management policies describe the account life cycle from creation through decommissioning. Data ownership policies describe how ownership information is created and used. Data classification policies describe the classification structure of the data in use by an organization. Retention policies describe what data will be maintained and for how long it will be retained.
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
You have been tasked to create some baseline system images to remediate vulnerabilities found in different operating systems. Before any of the images can be deployed, they must be scanned for malware and vulnerabilities. You must ensure the configurations meet industry-standard benchmarks and that the baselining creation process can be repeated frequently. What vulnerability option would BEST create the process requirements to meet the industry-standard benchmarks?
Correct
OBJ-3.4: Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) is a multi-purpose framework of specifications supporting automated configuration, vulnerability and patch checking, technical control compliance activities, and security measurement. It is an industry-standard and support testing for compliance. The other options will not allow for a truly repeatable process since individual scans would occur each time instead of comparing against a known good baseline.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.4: Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) is a multi-purpose framework of specifications supporting automated configuration, vulnerability and patch checking, technical control compliance activities, and security measurement. It is an industry-standard and support testing for compliance. The other options will not allow for a truly repeatable process since individual scans would occur each time instead of comparing against a known good baseline.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.4: Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) is a multi-purpose framework of specifications supporting automated configuration, vulnerability and patch checking, technical control compliance activities, and security measurement. It is an industry-standard and support testing for compliance. The other options will not allow for a truly repeatable process since individual scans would occur each time instead of comparing against a known good baseline.
Question 55 of 60
55. Question
You are trying to find some files that were deleted by a user on a Windows workstation. What two locations are most likely to contain those deleted files?
Correct
OBJ-4.4: Files that users have deleted are most likely found in the Recycle Bin or slack space. Slack space is the space left after a file has been written to a cluster. Slack space may contain remnant data from previous files after the pointer to the files was deleted by a user. Unallocated space has not been partitioned and, therefore, would typically not have been written to. The registry will not store files that have been deleted but may contain a reference to the file, such as the file’s name.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.4: Files that users have deleted are most likely found in the Recycle Bin or slack space. Slack space is the space left after a file has been written to a cluster. Slack space may contain remnant data from previous files after the pointer to the files was deleted by a user. Unallocated space has not been partitioned and, therefore, would typically not have been written to. The registry will not store files that have been deleted but may contain a reference to the file, such as the file’s name.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.4: Files that users have deleted are most likely found in the Recycle Bin or slack space. Slack space is the space left after a file has been written to a cluster. Slack space may contain remnant data from previous files after the pointer to the files was deleted by a user. Unallocated space has not been partitioned and, therefore, would typically not have been written to. The registry will not store files that have been deleted but may contain a reference to the file, such as the file’s name.
Question 56 of 60
56. Question
Which of the following ensures multi-threaded processing is conducted securely?
Correct
OBJ-2.3: Atomic execution by operations and distributes their processing across the multi-threaded processing environment securely. Trusted execution ensures that the attestation of the authenticity of the platform and its operating system is conducting, that the operating system starts in a trusted environment, and that a trusted operating system cannot be run on an unproven platform. The secure enclave is a secure coprocessor that includes a hardware-based key manager isolated from the main processor to provide an extra layer of security. Processor security extensions are built into many modern processors to provide secure processing capabilities.
Incorrect
OBJ-2.3: Atomic execution by operations and distributes their processing across the multi-threaded processing environment securely. Trusted execution ensures that the attestation of the authenticity of the platform and its operating system is conducting, that the operating system starts in a trusted environment, and that a trusted operating system cannot be run on an unproven platform. The secure enclave is a secure coprocessor that includes a hardware-based key manager isolated from the main processor to provide an extra layer of security. Processor security extensions are built into many modern processors to provide secure processing capabilities.
Unattempted
OBJ-2.3: Atomic execution by operations and distributes their processing across the multi-threaded processing environment securely. Trusted execution ensures that the attestation of the authenticity of the platform and its operating system is conducting, that the operating system starts in a trusted environment, and that a trusted operating system cannot be run on an unproven platform. The secure enclave is a secure coprocessor that includes a hardware-based key manager isolated from the main processor to provide an extra layer of security. Processor security extensions are built into many modern processors to provide secure processing capabilities.
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
Fail to Pass Systems has just become the latest victim in a large scale data breach by an APT. Your initial investigation confirms a massive exfiltration of customer data has occurred. Which of the following actions do you recommend to the CEO of Fail to Pass Systems in handling this data breach?
Correct
OBJ-5.1: Generally speaking, most laws require notification within 72 hours, such as the GDPR. All other options are either unethical, constitute insurance fraud, or are illegal. Conducting a hack-back is considered illegal, and once data has been taken, it is nearly impossible to steal it back as the attacker probably has a backup of it. Providing an incorrect statement to the press is unethical, and if your company is caught lying about the extent of the breach, it could further hurt your reputation. Purchasing a cyber insurance policy and altering the log file dates to make it look like the attack occurred after buying the policy would be insurance fraud. This is unethical and illegal.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.1: Generally speaking, most laws require notification within 72 hours, such as the GDPR. All other options are either unethical, constitute insurance fraud, or are illegal. Conducting a hack-back is considered illegal, and once data has been taken, it is nearly impossible to steal it back as the attacker probably has a backup of it. Providing an incorrect statement to the press is unethical, and if your company is caught lying about the extent of the breach, it could further hurt your reputation. Purchasing a cyber insurance policy and altering the log file dates to make it look like the attack occurred after buying the policy would be insurance fraud. This is unethical and illegal.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.1: Generally speaking, most laws require notification within 72 hours, such as the GDPR. All other options are either unethical, constitute insurance fraud, or are illegal. Conducting a hack-back is considered illegal, and once data has been taken, it is nearly impossible to steal it back as the attacker probably has a backup of it. Providing an incorrect statement to the press is unethical, and if your company is caught lying about the extent of the breach, it could further hurt your reputation. Purchasing a cyber insurance policy and altering the log file dates to make it look like the attack occurred after buying the policy would be insurance fraud. This is unethical and illegal.
Question 58 of 60
58. Question
Which type of personnel control is being implemented if Kirsten must receive and inventory any items that her coworker, Bob, orders?
Correct
OBJ-5.3: This organization uses separation of duties to ensure that neither Kirsten nor Bob can exploit the organization’s ordering processes for their own individual gain. Separation of duties is the concept of having more than one person required to complete a particular task to prevent fraud and error. Dual control, instead, requires both people to act together. For example, a nuclear missile system uses dual control and requires two people to each turn a different key simultaneously to allow for a missile launch to occur. Mandatory vacation policies require employees to take time away from their job and detect fraud or malicious activities. A background check is a process a person or company uses to verify that a person is who they claim to be and provides an opportunity for someone to check a person’s criminal record, education, employment history, and other past activities to confirm their validity.
Incorrect
OBJ-5.3: This organization uses separation of duties to ensure that neither Kirsten nor Bob can exploit the organization’s ordering processes for their own individual gain. Separation of duties is the concept of having more than one person required to complete a particular task to prevent fraud and error. Dual control, instead, requires both people to act together. For example, a nuclear missile system uses dual control and requires two people to each turn a different key simultaneously to allow for a missile launch to occur. Mandatory vacation policies require employees to take time away from their job and detect fraud or malicious activities. A background check is a process a person or company uses to verify that a person is who they claim to be and provides an opportunity for someone to check a person’s criminal record, education, employment history, and other past activities to confirm their validity.
Unattempted
OBJ-5.3: This organization uses separation of duties to ensure that neither Kirsten nor Bob can exploit the organization’s ordering processes for their own individual gain. Separation of duties is the concept of having more than one person required to complete a particular task to prevent fraud and error. Dual control, instead, requires both people to act together. For example, a nuclear missile system uses dual control and requires two people to each turn a different key simultaneously to allow for a missile launch to occur. Mandatory vacation policies require employees to take time away from their job and detect fraud or malicious activities. A background check is a process a person or company uses to verify that a person is who they claim to be and provides an opportunity for someone to check a person’s criminal record, education, employment history, and other past activities to confirm their validity.
Question 59 of 60
59. Question
You have received a laptop from a user who recently left the company. You went to the terminal in the operating system and typed ‘history’ into the prompt and see the following:
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
> for i in seq 255; ping -c 1 10.1.0.$i; done
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
Which of the following best describes what actions were performed by this line of code?
Correct
OBJ-3.1: This code is performing a ping sweep of the subnet 10.1.0.0/24. The code states that for every number in the sequence from 1 to 255, conduct a ping to 10.1.0.x, where x is the number from 1 to 255. When it completes this sequence, it is to return to the terminal prompt (done). The ping command uses an echo request and then receives an echo reply from the ping’s target. A ping sweep does not use an SYN scan, which would require the use of a tool like nmap or hping.
Incorrect
OBJ-3.1: This code is performing a ping sweep of the subnet 10.1.0.0/24. The code states that for every number in the sequence from 1 to 255, conduct a ping to 10.1.0.x, where x is the number from 1 to 255. When it completes this sequence, it is to return to the terminal prompt (done). The ping command uses an echo request and then receives an echo reply from the ping’s target. A ping sweep does not use an SYN scan, which would require the use of a tool like nmap or hping.
Unattempted
OBJ-3.1: This code is performing a ping sweep of the subnet 10.1.0.0/24. The code states that for every number in the sequence from 1 to 255, conduct a ping to 10.1.0.x, where x is the number from 1 to 255. When it completes this sequence, it is to return to the terminal prompt (done). The ping command uses an echo request and then receives an echo reply from the ping’s target. A ping sweep does not use an SYN scan, which would require the use of a tool like nmap or hping.
Question 60 of 60
60. Question
During which phase of the incident response process does an organization assemble an incident response toolkit?
Correct
OBJ-4.2: During the preparation phase, the incident response team conducts training, prepares their incident response kits, and researches threats and intelligence. During the detection and analysis phase, an organization focuses on monitoring and detecting any possible malicious events or attacks. During the containment, eradication, and recovery phase of an incident response, an analyst must preserve forensic and incident information for future needs, prevent future attacks or bring up an attacker on criminal charges. During the post-incident activity phase, the organization conducts after-action reports, creates lessons learned, and conducts follow-up actions to better prevent another incident from occurring.
Incorrect
OBJ-4.2: During the preparation phase, the incident response team conducts training, prepares their incident response kits, and researches threats and intelligence. During the detection and analysis phase, an organization focuses on monitoring and detecting any possible malicious events or attacks. During the containment, eradication, and recovery phase of an incident response, an analyst must preserve forensic and incident information for future needs, prevent future attacks or bring up an attacker on criminal charges. During the post-incident activity phase, the organization conducts after-action reports, creates lessons learned, and conducts follow-up actions to better prevent another incident from occurring.
Unattempted
OBJ-4.2: During the preparation phase, the incident response team conducts training, prepares their incident response kits, and researches threats and intelligence. During the detection and analysis phase, an organization focuses on monitoring and detecting any possible malicious events or attacks. During the containment, eradication, and recovery phase of an incident response, an analyst must preserve forensic and incident information for future needs, prevent future attacks or bring up an attacker on criminal charges. During the post-incident activity phase, the organization conducts after-action reports, creates lessons learned, and conducts follow-up actions to better prevent another incident from occurring.
X
Use Page numbers below to navigate to other practice tests